And . . .  it was all exactly equal right?   Because all slavery is the same in both degree and kind as it is practiced by all peoples?  An equal number of deaths in an equal time frame were inflicted by Native Americans practicing slavery as were inflicted in the US under the organized, international European and American slave trade.  Is that true?  I don't think that's true.  I think that is far from true.

Again, I'm not debating abstractions without measurable context.    "They did it, too" isn't a conversation I'm interested in.   It eliminates all context, degree and intensity of the meaning and reality of "slavery in America."    When we keep the discussion on this abstract level without context - it's all slavery - everything can easily look the same, and it can always be argued that they were the same. But they weren't the same.  There were many differences in the practices of slavery, and there was a significant difference due to industry not existing in their cultures.