You tell us:  "And I agree that "hardliner literalists" on indissolubility have put on blinders that largely miss what Jesus was saying. "

But at least some of what Jesus said should be taken literally.  With that you should agree.  We can usually tell whether he intended to be taken literally simply by reading the text itself.  If you think Jesus did not intend to be taken literally on divorce, what do you think he intended to tell us, and why do you think he intended to say THAT, rather than what he actually said?