I know all that. I am not questioning validity or liceity, I am asking about the priest’s sinfulness. There was a ‘divorce’ from the Church while the bishops were excommunicated and an affiliation with those excommunicated bishops by the priests that is comparable to divorce and remarriage. Or maybe not. The masses celebrated are undoubtedly valid, but does the priest receive communion worthily? Is it to his benefit or is it a mortal sin?

I am just trying to understand the situation of the remarried, which is irregular. Irregular like FSSPX? Is it different now that the excommunications have been lifted? It is also similar in that normally holy actions of the married couple are the basis for the mortal sin, and the priestly actions by FSSPX are what would be the basis for their sin. I am just wondering?