The article provided what you asked for, substantiation of pre-Constantine churches. That they were house churches isn't relevant. Still a church.

My original point was to dispute someone elses claim to know, certainly, that Jesus never used any language but Aramaic at the Last Supper. That was a silly assertion -- because it is unknowable -- and I pointed that out. Now you acknowledge that when you disputed my commonsensical point, you didnt really mean to weigh in on the Last Supper, but a wholly different point that interests you more. How adorable!

As a matter of logic, asserting a negative -- "x never happened" -- is a much harder thing to demonstrate than asserting "x happened." I was responding to two such asserted negatives, the other being, "there were no churches before Constantine."

So, again, the earlier poster asserted, definitively, that pre Constantine churches never existed. I disputed that, and my one link amply discredits that categorical negative assertion.