You are a master of obfuscation and manipulation, but only among stupid people: you clearly wrote, " No matter what reason a foreign military force uses to justify its occupation, the citizens of that country may lawfully choose to become combatants and attack it."  "Lawfully" means legally, it means that under some law they are allowed (civilians) to become combatants. Which law is that? Where is it written? Either you are lazy or you are afraid to show the source of your claim because you know that in Israel's case there is a clear exception. For example, the borders around Israel and its Arab adversaries, pre -1967 were demarcation lines and not permanent borders. Since then and peace agreement between Egypt, Jordan and Israel, the status of temporary borders have changed under mutual agreement. No such status exists with regard to Judea, Samaria and Gaza, and Security Council Resolution 242 makes this clear.