I find no difficulty in answering your question or replying to what you said.  Your allegation that I evaded what you said is false.  But I note that you again evaded a fair question, i.e., "If you think Jesus did not intend to be taken literally on divorce, what do you think he intended to tell us, and why do you think he intended to say THAT rather than what he actually said? 

Now, I'll respond to your remarks, above: You compare Jesus's obvious figurative saying "If thine eye offend thee"  ---- you DO take that figuratively, don't you?  --- with his commandment not to divorce except for adultery.  They are as different as night and day.  After Jesus told the Pharisees that divorce was permitted only for adultery, the Pharisees (like you) did not accept his answer. and they asked him: "Why then did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" 
cont'd