Wouldn't it just be simply to cite something about how the church used to allow divorce?

That seems to be what msw is implying in his essay.    He makes the broad claim that the church's "pastoral practice on marriage has changed repeatedly over the centuries."

Many reading that line might assume that the church has previously been flexible on divorce.  If only someone could cite when and where the church was pastorally liberal on divorce.

(Divorce, not family celebrations)