(TWO)

I have expressed an exegetical interpretation of two parallel passages in Matthew about binding an loosing, and I am asking if we agree about what the text in and of it self means. We both know full well that V1 used one of those pericopes as one of its core proof texts for the universal jurisdiction of the Bishop of Rome, and we both accept that under the on going guidance of the Spirit the Church can and does make authoritative use of scriptures that go beyond parsimonious exigesis, beyond what we expect regard as the competence of scriptural scholars qua scriptural scholars. 

So, Marty, are you willing to make distinctions that are well within your intelligence and knowledge, or are you determined once again to obfuscate (my term for your "no need to step back.")