I wasn't sure whether to post this here, or on mythology stack exchange. Since it deals with the origin of a word, I choose here. But if I am wrong, tell me and I will move it.

The originally meaning of the word virgin meant unmarried, one-in-herself, not belonging to a man-a woman. The modern meaning means never experienced copulation.

But, I have read a Greek Myth that suggests both meanings were true. In short, the 50 daughters of one king was set to marry the 50 sons of another. In some way the kings were related(cousins/brothers). The father of the daughters was against it and ordered them to kill their husbands on their wedding night. The 50 couples married and 49 of the daughters obeyed their father and killed their partner. The one that didn't only did so because of her desire to remain a virgin.

This is why I ask. She is married, therefore, not a virgin, in the original respect. Yet, she did not kill her husband out of his respect for her to remain a virgin, in the modern respect. Is is plausible that both definitions were true in ancient times.

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    "Virgin" is an English word, yet you talk about a Greek myth. Are you actually asking about the English word (derived from Latin "virgo"), or some Greek word, and if the latter, which one? The fact that it has been glossed as "virgin" in English is not something that you can use to draw a one-to-one correspondence. Could it have been this word perhaps? It does have a few connected meaning. – LjL Jan 29 '18 at 16:17
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    I think, this question does not deserve that many downvotes. We are here to learn, and the OP has their right for misunderstanding when asking a question, provided that they demonstrated a fair attempt to self-answer the question and matching other basic Stack Exchange requirements. – bytebuster Jan 29 '18 at 17:57

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