Some grammar books say that "did nothing but to do" is wrong, because it has to be "did nothing but do", without "to".

But googling in " did nothing but to" shows 1,170,000 results.

The grammar books must be wrong?
1 2
It depends on how 'wrong' you think 'wrong' is. As you know, there are plenty of phrases and structures in wide use that are not accepted by many grammarians in careful English. And the point you have raised is one of the more muddy ones: Did nothing but eat all the scones? Did nothing but to eat all the scones? Did nothing but eating all the scones? There's many a slip among the hoi polloi.

I see your point, Mister Micawber!!

I wonder what your opinion will be on my question:

Yes, will/should/could/would have can all refer to future events prior to other future events ('past-in-the-future').

Modals don't have a distinct future form; they are merely 'non-past': I can/should/will/could/must see that movie tomorrow. Their past forms are the perfect, but I suppose that since the simple modals apply to either present or future, their perfect forms refer to the past from now or the past from a future vantage point. It probably doesn't work with all of them, though.
Thanks a lot....

Your explanation sounds simple, but I guess I have to dig on it, to fully understand....
What is your answer for this one and can you please explain it in the easiest way to understand : The little boy did nothing but.....during the party
A crying
B cry
C to cry
D for crying
Is there any formulas for these kind of questions?
Site Hint: Check out our list of pronunciation videos.
He did nothing but cry = He did nothing but (he did) cry.
AnonymousIs there any formulas for these kind of questions?
Try to match the verb forms.

My brother enjoys nothing but ____ computer games.
(A) played (B) play (C) to play (D) playing
The answer is option D. Do you agree?

Thank you sitifan...

Yes, I agree, because of the verb ENJOY.

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