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Am very confused. I understand why Jesus died for us on the cross to pay for all of our sins and I understand how there had to be a virginal birth, so that Jesus could be perfect and without sin.

Am so lost though as to why when God paid for our sins, the son had to do it? Why not the father? Is it related to the redemption convenant, only briefly looked at that earlier? Am new to the Bible and haven't looked in depth at that yet.

Thank you

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Good question. I wonder about that too. However, before going onward, can you narrow down the denominational viewpoint that you'd like the answer from? –  Anonymous Jan 26 at 20:44
Hi, do you mean as in CoE? –  Sweet Jan 26 at 23:14
If you belong to the Church of England or would like to know more information about the Church of England, then yes. –  Anonymous Jan 26 at 23:34
Ok yes Church of England. Sorry with the post below, i didn't know this is a duplicate question and am not sure how to look for questions already posted? Xxx –  Sweet Jan 27 at 16:42
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marked as duplicate by Caleb Jan 27 at 10:25


1 Answer

Some believe (Lutherans for example, and me - I am Episcopalian) that Jesus is God incarnate, therefore it is not the son at all, but God that is hanging on the cross. But if you must, consider John 10:18


Christ has chosen to accept the assignment and can also refuse. Even He has free will. Free to come and go as it were.

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Your answer sounds plausible, but it can greatly be improved if you can specify the "Some of us" at the beginning. By the way, what denomination are you in? (I'm just asking, because it's necessary to report your denomination in your answer if you are representing your denomination.) –  Anonymous Jan 26 at 22:37
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