A 52-year-old man with known aortic stenosis develops angina pectoris and has a single episode of syncope. The following is/are true:
A.	Onset of angina indicates concomitant coronary artery disease independent of valvular lesion
B.	Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty should be considered since it has generally favorable results
C.	Patient is not an operative candidate since heart failure has not occurred
D.	A measured transvalvular pressure gradiant > 50 mmHg would be an operative indication
Answer:D
A 52-year-old man with known aortic stenosis develops angina pectoris and has a single episode of syncope. The following is/are true:
A.	Onset of angina indicates concomitant coronary artery disease independent of valvular lesion B.	Percutaneous aortic balloon valvuloplasty should be considered since it has generally favorable results C.	Patient is not an operative candidate since heart failure has not occurred D.	A measured transvalvular pressure gradiant > 50 mmHg would be an operative indication