<s>[INST] Show $\int_0^\infty \frac{\tan^{-1}x^2}{1+x^2} dx= \int_0^\infty \frac{\tan^{-1}x^{1/2} }{1+x^2}dx$ I accidentally found out that the two integrals below
$$I_1=\int_0^\infty \frac{\tan^{-1}x^2}{1+x^2} dx,\>\>\>\>\>\>\>I_2=\int_0^\infty \frac{\tan^{-1}x^{1/2} }{1+x^2}dx$$
are equal in value. In fact, they can be evaluated explicitly. For example, the first one can be carried out via double integration,  as sketched below.
\begin{align}
I_1&=\int_0^\infty \left(\int_0^1 \frac{x^2}{1+y^2x^4}dy\right)\frac{1}{1+x^2}dx\\
&= \frac\pi2\int_0^1 \left( \sqrt{\frac y2}+ \frac1{\sqrt{2y} }-1\right)\frac{1}{1+y^2}dy=\frac{\pi^2}8
\end{align}
Similarly, the second one yields $I_2=\frac{\pi^2}8$ as well.
The evaluations are a bit involved, though, and it seems an overreach to prove their equality this way, if only the following needs to be shown
$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\tan^{-1}x^2-\tan^{-1}x^{1/2} }{1+x^2}dx=0$$
The question, then, is whether there is a shortcut to show that the above integral vanishes.
 [/INST] Since $\int_0^\infty\frac{f(x)dx}{1+x^2}=\int_0^1\frac{f(x)+f(1/x)}{1+x^2}dx$, $\int_0^\infty\tfrac{\arctan x^kdx}{1+x^2}=\tfrac{\pi}{2}\int_0^1\tfrac{dx}{1+x^2}=\tfrac{\pi^2}{8}$ for all $k\in\Bbb R$.
</s>