<s>[INST] When $p=2$ or $p$ prime, with $p=1\pmod{4}$, $x^2\equiv -1\pmod{p}$ is soluble - trouble understanding proof Theorem: When $p=2$ or $p$ prime, with $p=1\pmod{4}$, $x^2\equiv -1\pmod{p}$ is soluble
Proof: When $p=2$, the statement is clear.
Assume $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$, let $r=\frac{p-1}{2}$ and $x=r!$
Then since $r$ is even $x^2\equiv (1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\equiv (p-1)!\equiv -1\pmod{p}$
Thus, when $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$, the congruence $x^2\equiv -1\pmod{p}$ is soluble.
Point of contention: I understand the general argument
I understand the relation
$(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\equiv (p-1)!\equiv -1\pmod{p}$
But I cant work out how $x^2\equiv(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\pmod{p}$
How is $((\frac{p-1}{2})!)^2\equiv(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\pmod{p}$
 [/INST] Since there are an even number of terms:
$$\begin{align}1\cdot 2\cdots r &= (-1)(-2)\cdots (-r)\\
&\equiv (p-1)(p-2)\cdots(p-r)\pmod p\\
&=(r+1)(r+2)\cdots(p-1)
\end{align}$$
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