<s>[INST] Examining the convergence of $\int_{0}^{1}\left(\left\lceil \frac{1}{x} \right\rceil-\left\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \right\rfloor\right) \, dx$ Okay so I'm trying to determine whether $\int_{0}^{1}\left(\left\lceil \frac{1}{x} \right\rceil-\left\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \right\rfloor\right) \, dx$ converges and if so, to what value? So the function $\left\lceil \frac{1}{x} \right\rceil-\left\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \right\rfloor = 0$ when $x=\frac{1}{k}$ where $k$ is a natural number, and everywhere else $\left\lceil \frac{1}{x} \right\rceil-\left\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \right\rfloor = 1$ From there I split the integral:
\begin{align*}
\int_0^1 \left(\left\lceil \frac{1}{x} \right\rceil-\left\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \right\rfloor\right) \, dx &= \int_{1/2}^1 1 \, dx +\int_{1/3}^{1/2} 1 \, dx + \int_{1/3}^{1/4} 1 \, dx + \cdots \\[10pt]
&= (1 - 1/2) + (1/2 - 1/3) + (1/3 - 1/4) + \cdots \\[10pt]
&= \lim_{m \to \infty} 1-1/m = 1\;.
\end{align*}
Am I correct?
 [/INST] Yes, you are correct. But it is much faster if you say that $\lceil \frac{1}{x} \rceil-\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \rfloor$ is $1$  except in a set of measure zero. If you don't know what the meausre of a set is, just say that the set is countable. Then
$$\int_0^1\left(\left\lceil \frac{1}{x}\right \rceil-\left\lfloor \frac{1}{x} \right\rfloor\right)dx=\int_0^11dx=1 $$
Your solution is still very nice.
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