<s>[INST] Finding $\lim x_n$ when $\left( 1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+x_n}=1+\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$ 
Let $x_n$ be the unique solution of the equation $$\left( 1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+x_n}=1+\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$$
  Find $\lim_{n \to \infty} x_n$

I think that the limit must be $\frac{1}{2}$, because $\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+\frac{1}{2}}$ is decreasing and convergent to $e$, while $1+\frac{1}{1!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$ is increasing and convergent to $e$, so $$\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+\frac{1}{2}}>1+\frac{1}{1!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$$
which means  that $\frac{1}{2}>x_n$. I also know that for $a \in [0,\frac{1}{2}), \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+a}$ is eventually increasing, but I don't know how to get a lower bound for $x_n$ which goes to $\frac{1}{2}$
 [/INST] The limit is indeed $\frac{1}{2}$. Due to Taylor's formula with integral remainder,
$$ \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{1}{k!} = e-\int_{0}^{1}\frac{(1-t)^n}{n!}\,e^t\,dt=e\left(1+O\left(\tfrac{1}{(n+1)!}\right)\right)=\exp\left(1+O\left(\tfrac{1}{(n+1)!}\right)\right)\tag{1} $$
while
$$ \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+x}=\exp\left[(n+x)\left(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{2n^2}+o\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\right)\right]=\exp\left[1+\frac{x-\frac{1}{2}}{n}+o\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right]\tag{2} $$
so by equating the RHSs of $(1)$ and $(2)$ we get $\lim_{n\to +\infty}x_n=\frac{1}{2}$ as expected.
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