<s>[INST] Avoiding brute force: determining when a specific polynomial in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ is an integer for any integer $x$ I have to prove that $\frac{1}{5}n^5+\frac{1}{3}n^3+\frac{7}{15}n$ is an integer for any $n$. I solved this by brute-force, exhausting all the possibilities methods. I was wondering if there was a way to solve this at-a-glance with some sort of theory? Because
Although my answer is correct, I was apparently supposed to use some theory to answer this question.
I started by putting everything on common denominator and factoring out $n$:
$$\frac{1}{5}n^5+\frac{1}{3}n^3+\frac{7}{15}n = \frac{n(3n^4+5n^2+7)}{15}$$
then I proceeded to plug in $\pm1 ,\pm2, \pm3 ,..., \pm7$ into $3n^4+5n^2+7 \pmod {3,5,\text{ or }15}$
$$3(\pm 1)^4 +5(\pm 1)^2 +7 \equiv 15 \equiv 0 \pmod{15}$$
$$3(\pm 2)^4 +5(\pm 2)^2 +7 \equiv 75 \equiv 5\cdot 15 \equiv 0 \pmod{15}$$
$$3(\pm 3)^4 +5(\pm 3)^2 +7 \equiv 295 \equiv 0 \pmod{5} \text{ while } n \equiv 0 \pmod 3$$
$$3(\pm 4)^4 +5(\pm 4)^2 +7 \equiv 855 \equiv 57\cdot 15\equiv 0 \pmod{15}$$
$$3(\pm 5)^4 +5(\pm 5)^2 +7 \equiv 2007 \equiv 0 \pmod{3}\text{ while } n \equiv 0 \pmod 5$$
$$3(\pm 6)^4 +5(\pm 6)^2 +7 \equiv 4075 \equiv 0 \pmod{5}\text{ while } n \equiv 0 \pmod 3$$
$$3(\pm 7)^4 +5(\pm 7)^2 +7 \equiv 7455 \equiv 497 \cdot 15\equiv 0 \pmod{15}$$
to conclude that if $n\equiv 0 \pmod {15}$ then $\frac{n}{15}$ is an integer from which $\frac{1}{5}n^5+\frac{1}{3}n^3+\frac{7}{15}n$ is an integer,
and if $n \not\equiv 0 \pmod {15}$ then either $3n^4+5n^2+7 \equiv 0 \pmod{15}$ or $n \equiv 0 \pmod 3$ and $ 3n^4+5n^2+7 \equiv 0 \pmod{5}$ or $n \equiv 0 \pmod 5$ and $ 3n^4+5n^2+7 \equiv 0 \pmod{3}$ from which the statement is clearly true.
Is there a less brute-force-ish way of concluding this? Is there some theory I should be using that would cause me to not be excessively lengthy in calculation if I were given different, larger numbers than $15$?
 [/INST] $$ \begin{align}f(n+1)-f(n)&=\frac{(n+1)^5-n^5}5+\frac{(n+1)^3-n^3}3+\frac7{15}
\\&=\frac{5n^4+10n^3+10n^2+5n+1}5+\frac{3n^2+3n+1}3+\frac7{15}\\&=\text{integer}+\frac15+\frac13+\frac 7{15}\end{align}$$
is an integer for all integers $n$ and so is $f(0)$. The claim follows by induction.

Here's a generalization for you: Suppose $p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_m$  are primes, $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_m$ are integers and $c$ is real. Let
$$ f(n)=\frac{a_1n^{p_1}}{p_1}+\frac{a_2n^{p_2}}{p_2}+\cdots +\frac{a_mn^{p_m}}{p_m}+cn.$$
If $f(1)$ is an integer, then $f(n)$ is an integer for all integers $n$.
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