<s>[INST] Series for logarithms This is more of a challenge than a question, but I thought I'd share anyway. Prove the following identities, and prove that the pattern continues.
\begin{equation*}
\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{2n+1}-\frac{1}{2n+2}\right)=\ln2
\end{equation*}\begin{equation*}
\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{3n+1}+\frac{1}{3n+2}-\frac{2}{3n+3}\right)=\ln3
\end{equation*}\begin{equation*}
\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{4n+1}+\frac{1}{4n+2}+\frac{1}{4n+3}-\frac{3}{4n+4}\right)=\ln4
\end{equation*}\begin{equation*}
\mathrm{etc.}
\end{equation*}
By the way, a good notation for discussing this problem can be found here. The problem is to prove that:
$[\overline{1,-1}]=\ln2,\;\;$ $[\overline{1,1,-2}]=\ln3,\;\;$ $[\overline{1,1,1,-3}]=\ln4,\;\;$ $[\overline{1,1,1,1,-4}]=\ln5,\;\;$ etc.
 [/INST] So far, there is a proof involving differentiation/integration, and a proof involving nothing more than the knowledge that $\gamma$amma exists. Here is my proof, requiring the Taylor series expansion of the logarithm.
The well known Taylor series for $\ln(x)$ is as follows:
$$-\ln(1-x)=\frac{x}{1}+\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{3}+\cdots+\frac{x^m}{m}+\cdots$$
which I love, because the exponents correspond to the denominators.
Substituting in $x^m$, we get:
$$-\ln(1-x^m)=\frac{x^m}{1}+\frac{x^{2m}}{2}+\frac{x^{3m}}{3}+\cdots=\frac{m\,x^m}{m}+\frac{m\,x^{2m}}{2m}+\frac{m\,x^{3m}}{3m}+\cdots$$
where I rewrote it slightly so that the exponents still correspond to the denominators.
Subtracting the bottom from the top, we get:
$$\ln\left(\frac{1-x^m}{1-x}\right)=\frac{x}{1}+\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{3}+\cdots+\frac{-(m-1)x^m}{m}+\\
\frac{x^{m+1}}{m+1}+\cdots+\frac{-(m-1)x^{2m}}{2m}+\cdots$$
(i.e. the coefficients are $-(m-1)$ where the denominator is a multiple of $m$, and $1$ otherwise.)
The LHS can be rewritten as $\ln(1+x+x^2+\cdots+x^m)$. So, plugging in $x=1$:
$$\ln(m)=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\cdots-\frac{m-1}{m}+\frac{1}{m+1}+\cdots-\frac{-(m-1)}{2m}+\cdots$$
which is what was meant to be proved.
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