<s>[INST] A sequence of full rank matrices $A_i \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$ such that $A_i \rightarrow A$ in $\|\cdot\|_2$ $\textbf{Question:}$ 
Prove that for every $A\in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$, $\exists$ a sequence of full rank matrices $A_i \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n}$ such that $A_i \rightarrow A$ in $\|\cdot\|_2$.
$\textbf{Answer Given:}$ 
If $A$ is of full rank, then $A_i = A$ $\forall i$.
If A is not of full rank, then $A$ has the form 
$$A= U
    \begin{bmatrix} 
    \sigma_1 & 0 & \dots & \dots& 0\\
    0 & \sigma_2 & 0 &\dots & 0 \\
    \vdots & & \ddots & & \vdots \\
    0 &   \dots &  0  & \sigma_r & 0 \\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \mathcal{O}
    \end{bmatrix}
V^T
$$
where $\mathcal{O}$ is a $(m-r)\times (n-r)$ matrix of zeros.
Then for $m=n$, 
$$A_i= U
    \begin{bmatrix} 
    \sigma_1 & 0 & \dots & \dots& 0 & \dots & 0\\
    0 & \sigma_2 & 0 &\dots & 0 & & \vdots\\
    \vdots & & \ddots & & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    0 &   \dots &  0  & \sigma_r & 0 & & \vdots\\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \frac{1}{i} & &  \vdots\\
    \vdots & & & & & \ddots & \vdots\\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \frac{1}{i}
    \end{bmatrix}
V^T
$$
and for $m > n$, 
$$A_i= U
    \begin{bmatrix} 
    \sigma_1 & 0 & \dots & \dots& 0 & \dots & 0\\
    0 & \sigma_2 & 0 &\dots & 0 & & \vdots\\
    \vdots & & \ddots & & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    0 &   \dots &  0  & \sigma_r & 0 & & \vdots\\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \frac{1}{i} & &  \vdots\\
    \vdots & & & & & \ddots & \vdots\\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \frac{1}{i} \\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots &  0\\
    \vdots & & & & & & \vdots\\
    0 & \dots &\dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & 0
    \end{bmatrix}
V^T
$$
and for $m<n$,
$$A_i= U
    \begin{bmatrix} 
    \sigma_1 & 0 & \dots & \dots& 0 & \dots & 0 & 0 & \dots & 0\\
    0 & \sigma_2 & 0 &\dots & 0 & & \vdots & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    \vdots & & \ddots & & \vdots & &\vdots & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    0 &   \dots &  0  & \sigma_r & 0 & & \vdots & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \frac{1}{i} & &  \vdots & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    \vdots & & & & & \ddots & \vdots & \vdots & &\vdots\\
    0 & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \dots & \frac{1}{i} & 0 &  \dots & 0
    \end{bmatrix}
V^T
$$
Thus $\operatorname{rank}(A_i) = \min\{m,n\}$ and each $A_i$ is of full rank, which gives us
$$ \|A-A_i \|_2 =  
    \begin{vmatrix} \begin{vmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}
    0 & \dots &  \dots & \dots & \dots  & 0\\
    \vdots & \ddots & & & & \vdots\\
    0 &        & 0 \\
    0 & & 0 & \frac{1}{i}  & \dots & 0 \\
    \vdots & & & & \ddots & \vdots \\
    0 &\dots &\dots &\dots & 0 & \frac{1}{i}
    \end{bmatrix}\end{vmatrix}\end{vmatrix}_2
= \sigma_{i+1} = \frac{1}{i} \rightarrow 0 \text{ as } i \rightarrow \infty. 
 $$
by the best rank-$k$ approximation theorem with respect to $\| \cdot \|_2$.
$\textbf{My Question (the only part that I do not understand):}$ 
How were the $\frac{1}{i}$ diagonals derived?
 [/INST] They were by choice, with the goal of obtain $\|A-A_i\|_2=\frac1{i}$, in fact, you can replace $\frac1{i}$ by another positive function of $i$ that goes to $0$ as $i \to \infty$.
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