<s>[INST] If $a_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{1+n}}$ and $c_n=\sum_{k=0}^n a_{n-k}a_k$, does $\sum_{n=0}^\infty c_n$ converge? 
Suppose for $n \in \mathbb{N} \cup \{0\}$, $a_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{1+n}}$. Define $c_n=\sum_{k=0}^na_{n-k}a_k$. Does $\sum_{n=1}^\infty c_n$ converge?

What I attempted:-
\begin{equation}
\begin{aligned}
c_n&=\sum_{k=0}^na_{n-k}a_k \\
&=a_na_0+a_{n-1}a_1+\dots+a_0a_n\\
&=\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{1+n}}\times 1+\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{\sqrt{1+n-1}}\times \frac{(-1)}{\sqrt{1+1}}+\frac{(-1)^{n-2}}{\sqrt{1+n-2}}\times \frac{(-1)^2}{\sqrt{1+2}}\dots+1 \times \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{1+n}} \\
&=(-1)^n\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+n}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2n}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3(n-1)}}+\dots+\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+n}}\right)\\
&=(-1)^nd_n
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
$(d_n)_{n=1}^\infty $ is a decreasing sequence and $\lim_{n \to \infty}d_n=0$. Hence $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^nd_n=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}c_n$ converges. As a result $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}c_n$ also converges. 
Am I correct?
 [/INST] Hint. Note that
$$d_n=\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{1}{\sqrt{(1+k)(n+1-k)}}\geq \sum_{k=0}^n\frac{2}{(1+k)+(n+1-k)}=\frac{2(n+1)}{n+2},$$
and therefore $c_n=(-1)^n d_n$ does not tend to zero as $n$ goes to infinity.
</s>