<s>[INST] An inequality involving three consecutive primes Can you provide a proof or a counterexample to the following claim :

Let $p,q,r$ be three consecutive prime numbers such that $p\ge 11 $ and $p<q<r$ , then $\frac{1}{p^2}< \frac{1}{q^2} + \frac{1}{r^2}$ .

I have tested this claim up to $10^{10}$ .
For $p>5$ we get $\pi(2p)-\pi(p) \ge 2$  , a result by Ramanujan .
This means that $q<2p$ and $r<2p$ , so $\frac{1}{2p}<\frac{1}{q}$ and $\frac{1}{2p}<\frac{1}{r}$ which implies $\frac{1}{p} < \frac{1}{q} + \frac{1}{r}$ . If we square both sides of inequality we get $\frac{1}{p^2} < \frac{1}{q^2} + \frac{2}{qr} + \frac{1}{r^2}$ . Now , I don't know how to rule out term $\frac{2}{qr}$  .
 [/INST] The inequality holds for all $p$ large enough. Let $a>1$ be such that $a^{-2}+a^{-4}=1$ and $p_n$ be the $n$-th prime. By the Prime Number Theorem there is an $N$ such that $p_{n+1}<a\,p_n$ for all $n\ge N$.If $p\ge p_N$, then $q<a\,p$ and $r<a\,q<a^2\,p$ and
$$
\frac{1}{q^2}+\frac{1}{r^2}>\frac{1}{a^2\,p^2}+\frac{1}{a^4\,p^2}=\frac{1}{p^2}.
$$
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