<s>[INST] Do the Taylor series of $\sin x$ and $\cos x$ depend on the identity $\sin^2 x + \cos^2 x =1$? I had this crazy idea trying to prove the Pythagorean trigonometric identity;$$\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1$$by squaring the infinite Taylor series of $\sin x$ and $\cos x$. But it came out quite beautiful, involving also a combinatorics identitie. 
The proof:
$$\sin x=\frac{x}{1}-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}-\frac{x^7}{7!}+...=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^{n}\frac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\\\\\sin^2x=x^2-x^4\left (\frac{1}{1!3!}+\frac{1}{3!1!}\right )+x^6\left (\frac{1}{1!5!}+\frac{1}{3!3!}+\frac{1}{5!1!}\right )-...\\\\\cos x=1-\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}-\frac{x^6}{6!}+...=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!}\\\\\cos^2x\!=\!1\!-\!x^2\left(\!\frac{1}{0!2!}\!+\!\frac{1}{2!0!}\!\right)\!+\!x^4\left(\!\frac{1}{0!4!}\!+\!\frac{1}{2!2!}\!+\!\frac{1}{4!0!}\!\right)\!-\!x^6\left(\!\frac{1}{0!6!}\!+\!\frac{1}{2!4!}\!+\!\frac{1}{4!2!}\!+\!\frac{1}{6!0!}\!\right)\!+...$$We should have shown that the series for both $\sin x$ and $\cos x$ converge absolutely (since we changed the arrangement), but it's obvious since the absolute value of all terms of $\sin x+\cos x$ add up to $e^x$.$$\sin^2x+\cos^2x=\\=1-x^2\left(\frac{1}{0!2!}-\frac{1}{1!1!}+\frac{1}{2!0!}\right)+x^4\left(\frac{1}{0!4!}-\frac{1}{1!3!}+\frac{1}{2!2!}-\frac{1}{3!1!}+\frac{1}{4!0!}\right)-x^6\left(\frac{1}{0!6!}-\frac{1}{1!5!}+\frac{1}{2!4!}-\frac{1}{3!3!}+\frac{1}{4!2!}-\frac{1}{5!1!}+\frac{1}{6!0!}\right)+...=\\\\=1+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^nx^{2n}\sum_{k=0}^{2n}\frac{(-1)^k\binom{2n}{k}}{(2n)!}$$
Since we can show easily that $\sum_{i=0}^n(-1)^i\binom{n}{i}=0$ by expanding $(1-1)^n$ using Binom's formula. So:$$\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1-0+0-0+...=1$$
I think it's beautiful. I just wanted to ask, do Taylor's series of those functions depend on this identity? Because if they do, the proof will be circular.
 [/INST] Nice proof! To address your question,

Do Taylor's series of those functions depend on this identity? Because if they do, the proof will be circular.

You are right to be worried about circularity! However, which concepts or theorems depend on which others is a matter of certain flexibility. Often, we take one thing to be the definition of a concept, and then have to prove the other properties as theorems -- but we could alternately have used some other property as a definition, and then the original definition would have to be a theorem.
Specific to your case, I have seen definitions of $\sin$ and $\cos$ where we start by defining $\sin$ using arclength, then we define $\cos x$ to satisfy $\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x = 1$. If we take this approach, certainly, there is nothing to prove. However, this is not the only possible approach! It is also common to define $\sin$ and $\cos$ using their Taylor series. Under this approach, you have given a very nice proof that $\sin^2 x + \cos^2 x = 1$.
Your proof could also be valid if we define $\sin$ and $\cos$ to be a basis of functions satisfying $f''(x) = -f(x)$.
In summary, it depends on what you define $\sin$ and $\cos$ to be; however, your proof is not necessarily circular. And it is a nice example of deriving a result about some functions from their Taylor series.
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