<s>[INST] Find the value of $T=\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1+ \frac{{1+\frac{1}{2}+ \frac{1}{3}+ . +\frac{1}{n}}}{{{n^2}}}} \right)^n}$ I am trying to evaluate
$$T = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + \frac{{1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n}}}{{{n^2}}}} \right)^n}.$$
My solution is as follow
$$T = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + \frac{{1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n}}}{{{n^2}}}} \right)^n} \Rightarrow T = {e^{\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } n\left( {1 + \frac{{1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n}}}{{{n^2}}} - 1} \right)}} = {e^{\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \left( {\frac{{1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n}}}{n}} \right)}}$$
$$T = {e^{\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \left( {\frac{1}{n} + \frac{1}{{2n}} + \frac{1}{{3n}} + \cdots + \frac{1}{{{n^2}}}} \right)}} = {e^{\left( {0 + 0 + \cdots + 0} \right)}} = {e^0} = 1$$
The solution is correct  but I presume my approach $\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \left( {\frac{{1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdot + \frac{1}{n}}}{n}} \right) \Rightarrow \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \left( {\frac{1}{n} + \frac{1}{{2n}} + \frac{1}{{3n}} + \cdot + \frac{1}{{{n^2}}}} \right) = 0$ is wrong.
Is there any generalized method
 [/INST] We want to show that $$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{H_n}{n}=0$$.
We have $\log n = \displaystyle \int_{1}^{n} \dfrac{1}{t} dt$. Also, $H_n = \displaystyle \sum_{r=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{r} = \dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{r=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{\frac{r}{n}}$
Thus, by comparison with the Riemann sums of $\log n$, we see that $\log n < H_n < 1 + \log n$.
So we get that, $$\dfrac{\log n}{n} < \dfrac{H_n}{n} < \dfrac{1+\log n}{n}$$
But both the left and right sides of the above inequality tend to $0$ as $n \to \infty$, and hence, by the Sandwich theorem (or Squeeze principle), $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{H_n}{n} = 0$$
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