<s>[INST] Is there any way to prove $ \frac{1}{1^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{n^2} \leq \frac{\pi^2}{6} $ by induction since $ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6} $ we have that for each $n\in \Bbb N$ , $  \frac{1}{1^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{n^2} \leq \frac{\pi^2}{6} $
my problem is can we prove the statement 
"for each $n\in \Bbb N$ , $  \frac{1}{1^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{n^2} \leq \frac{\pi^2}{6} $"
only using induction ?(without using the fact that convergence of the above series)
any ideas, thanks!
 [/INST] This is not a full proof yet, just an idea I had.
From Leibniz series we know that for $k \geq 1$:
$$\frac{\pi}{4} \geq 1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots +\frac{1}{4k-3}-\frac{1}{4k-1}$$
Squaring we have:
$$\frac{\pi^2}{6} \geq \frac{8}{3} \left( 1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots +\frac{1}{4k-3}-\frac{1}{4k-1} \right)^2$$
If we could prove that for any $k \geq 1$:
$$\frac{8}{3} \left( 1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots +\frac{1}{4k-3}-\frac{1}{4k-1} \right)^2 \geq 1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\dots+\frac{1}{k^2}$$
We are finished.
The base case:
$$\frac{8}{3} \left( 1-\frac{1}{3}\right)^2=\frac{32}{27} >1$$
The induction hypothesis is:
$$\frac{8}{3} \left( 1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots +\frac{1}{4k-3}-\frac{1}{4k-1} \right)^2 \geq 1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\dots+\frac{1}{k^2} \tag{1}$$
We need to prove that from (1) follows:
$$\frac{8}{3} \left( 1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots +\frac{1}{4k+1}-\frac{1}{4k+3} \right)^2 \geq 1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\dots+\frac{1}{k^2}+\frac{1}{(k+1)^2} \tag{2}$$
If this is indeed true, I'll try to finish the proof. Or I offer anyone else who wants to try the opportunity to post their answer before me.
For a few values of $k$ I checked the inequality (1) holds, so it should be possible to prove it by induction.
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