<s>[INST] Would this solution of the limit of the sequence be correct? Let's suppose that I have the sequence $a_n = \frac{1}{n^2} + \frac{2}{n^2} + \frac{3}{n^2} + \ldots + \frac{n}{n^2}, n \in \mathbb{N}$. And I have to find the limit of the sequence as $n \rightarrow \infty$. Would the below solution be correct?
The sequence $a_n$ can be rewritten as
\begin{align}
a_n &= \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{k}{n^2} \\
&= \frac{1}{n^2} \sum_{k=1}^{n} k \\
&= \frac{1}{n^2} \cdot \frac{n(n+1)}{2} \\
&= \frac{n+1}{2n}.
\end{align}
Thus we have
\begin{align}
\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} a_n = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n+1}{2n} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n}{2n} = \frac{1}{2}.
\end{align}
 [/INST] Your solution is fine. Here is an other way to get the result. I know it is not the easier way to solve it, but the advantage is that you can generalize to $b_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{k^2}{n^3}$ for instance.
Notice that $$a_n = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{k}{n}$$
looks like a Riemann sum for $f : x \mapsto x$ since
$$a_n = \sum_{k=0}^{n} f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right) \left(\frac{k+1}{n} - \frac{k}{n} \right)$$
Therefore the limit of the sequence $(a_n)_{n≥1}$ is $$\int_0^1 f = \left[\frac{x^2}{2}\right]_0^1 = \frac{1}{2}$$
</s>