<s>[INST] Convergence of $ \sum _ { n = 1 } ^ { \infty } \frac { n ! n ^ { n } } { ( 2 n ) ! } $ The task is to find out if this series is convergent or divergent.

$$ \sum _ { n = 1 } ^ { \infty } \frac { n ! n ^ { n } } { ( 2 n ) ! } $$

The solution uses the ratio test and says:

$ \left.\begin{aligned} \frac { a _ { n + 1 } } { a _ { n } } & = \frac { ( n + 1 ) ! ( n + 1 ) ^ { n + 1 } ( 2 n ) ! } { ( 2 ( n + 1 ) ) ! n ! n ^ { n } } = \frac { ( n + 1 ) n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) ^ { n } ( 2 n ) ! } { ( 2 n + 2 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n ) ! n ! n ^ { n } } \\ & = \frac { ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) } { ( 2 n + 2 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) } \cdot \left( \frac { n + 1 } { n } \right) ^ { n } = \frac { \left( 1 + \frac { 1 } { n } \right) \left( 1 + \frac { 1 } { n } \right) } { \left( 2 + \frac { 2 } { n } \right) \left( 2 + \frac { 1 } { n } \right) } \cdot \left( \frac { n + 1 } { n } \right) ^ { n } \\ & \rightarrow \frac { 1 } { 4 } \cdot e < 1 \text { for } n \rightarrow \infty \end{aligned} \right. $

I understand every step until here

$$ \frac { \left( 1 + \frac { 1 } { n } \right) \left( 1 + \frac { 1 } { n } \right) } { \left( 2 + \frac { 2 } { n } \right) \left( 2 + \frac { 1 } { n } \right) } \cdot \left( \frac { n + 1 } { n } \right) ^ { n } $$

How can all n's on the left site become 1/n? And I understand how the left site can become $\frac{1}{4}$, but how can the right site become e in the last step?
 [/INST] We have that
$$\left( \frac { n + 1 } { n } \right) ^ { n }=\left( 1+\frac { 1 } { n } \right) ^ { n }\to e$$
and from here
$$\frac { ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) } { ( 2 n + 2 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) } $$
just divide both numerator and denominator by $n^2$.
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