<s>[INST] Prove $\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}$ or $\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\cos\theta}{(1-a\cos\theta)^3}=\frac{3a\pi}{(1-a^2)^{5/2}}$ While doing some mathematical modelling of planetary orbits I have come up with two definite integrals $D_1$ and $D_2$ which appear to produce the same result R when tested with various values of $a$  ( where $0<a<1$).
$$
D_1
\, =\,
\int_0^{2\pi}f_1\,\mathrm{d}\theta
\, =\,
\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}\mathrm{d}\theta
\,=\,
\frac{3a\pi}{(1-a^2)^{5/2}}
\, =\,R
$$
and
$$D_2\, =\,\int_0^{2\pi}f_2\,\mathrm{d}\theta
\, =\,
\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^3}\,\mathrm{d}\theta
\, =\,
\frac{3a\pi}{(1-a^2)^{5/2}}
\, =\,R$$
The hypothesis: $D_1$ = $D_2$ has been proved in a separate question Prove $\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}\mathrm{d}\theta = \int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^3}\,\mathrm{d}\theta$  .
The remaining hypotheses $D_1$ = $R$ and $D_2$ = $R$ have not been proved.  So the question is:-
Prove $D_1$ = $R$ or $D_2$ = $R$.
Only one proof is required because the other can then be obtained from $D_1$ = $D_2$.

For information
WolframAlpha computes expressions for the indefinite integrals $I_1,I_2$ as follows:-
$$I_1
\, =\,
\int\frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^4}\mathrm{d}\theta
\,=\,
$$
$$constant1 + \frac
{a\,\sqrt{a^2-1}\sin\theta\,[-(2a^3+a)\cos^2\theta+3(a^2+1)cos\theta+a(2a^2-5)]}
{2(a^2-1)^{5/2}(a\cos\theta-1)^3}
$$
$$-\frac
{6a\,(a\cos\theta-1)^3\,\tanh^-1
\left(
\frac{(a+1)\tan(\theta/2)}{\sqrt{a^2-1}}
\right)
}
{(2(a^2-1)^{5/2}\,(a\cos\theta-1)^3}
$$
and
$$I_2
\, =\,
\int\frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a\cos \theta)^3}\,\mathrm{d}\theta
\, =\,
$$
$$constant2 -
\frac
{2a^2\sin\theta-sin\theta}
{2(a^2-1)^2(a\cos\theta-1)}
-\frac
{\sin\theta}
{2(a^2-1)(a\cos\theta-1)^2}
$$
$$
-\frac
{3a\tanh^-1\left(\frac{(a+1)\tan(\theta/2)}{\sqrt{a^2-1}}\right)}
{(a^2-1)^{5/2}}
$$
Note that the final terms of each expression ( i.e. the terms involving $\tanh^{-1} $ and $\tan$ ) are equivalent to each other.
Also, note that
$$\int\frac{\cos\theta}{(1-a\cos\theta)^3}\,d\theta=
\frac{-\sin\theta}{(1-a\cos\theta)^3}
+\int \frac{3a\sin^2\theta}{(1-a\cos\theta)^4}\,d\theta.
$$

Written with StackEdit.

UPDATE 20141028
I have accepted TenaliRaman's answer. I don't yet understand all the steps but his helpful exposition gives me confidence that with time I can understand it because the methods cited (binomials, series) are ones I have learned (at high school).
The answer of M.Strochyk also appears to give a good proof. But the residue method is too advanced for me to understand at present.
UPDATE 20220713
I have now accepted Quanto's answer (because it is simple enough for me to understand).  I have also added an answer based on Quanto's but with the intermediate steps written out.
 [/INST] I try to tackle the second integral
$$
\int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a \cos \theta)^{3}} d \theta
$$
by the result in my post
$$I_n(a)=\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{d x}{(a-\cos x)^{n}}=\frac{(-1)^{n-1} \pi}{(n-1) !} \frac{d^{n-1}}{d a^{n-1}}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{a^{2}-1}}\right) $$
I start with the integral
$$
\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{1}{(1-a \cos \theta)^{2}} d \theta =\frac{1}{a^{2}} \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{a}-\cos \theta\right)^{2}} d \theta=\frac{1}{a^{2}}\left(\frac{\pi\left(\frac{1}{a}\right)}{\left(\frac{1}{a^{2}}-1\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}\right)
=\frac{\pi}{\left(1-a^{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}
$$
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. $a$ yields
$$
2 \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a \cos \theta)^{3}} d \theta =\frac{3 \pi a}{\left(1-a^{2}\right)^{\frac{5}{2}}}
$$
By symmetry, we get
$$
\boxed{\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a \cos \theta)^{3}} d \theta=2 \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\cos \theta}{(1-a \cos \theta)^{3}} d \theta= \frac{3 \pi a}{\left(1-a^{2}\right)^{\frac{5}{2}}}}
$$
</s>