<s>[INST] Need help with taylor series. 
Evaluate the limit
  $$\lim\limits_{x \to 1} \frac{1-x + \ln x}{1+ \cos πx}$$

The limit im trying to get is $-\frac{1}{π^2}$ as I've solved from l'Hopitals rule.
Now I need to solve the limit by using Taylor Series and this is what i did so far
$$\begin{align*}
f(x) &= 1-x + \ln x = 1 -x + (x-1) + \frac{1}{2} (x-1)^2 + \frac{1}{3} (x-1)^3 - \frac{1}{4} (x-1)^4 + \ldots \\
g(x) &= 1+\cos πx = 1+\left[ 1+\frac{1}{2!} (πx)^2 + \frac{1}{4!} (πx)^4 - \frac{1}{6!} (πx)^6  +\ldots \right] \\
\frac {f(x)}{g(x)} & = \frac{\frac{1}{2} (x-1)^2 + \frac{1}{3} (x-1)^3 - \frac{1}{4}(x-1)^4 + \ldots} {2-\frac{1}{2!} (πx)^2 + \frac{1}{4!} (πx)^4 - \frac{1}{6!} (πx)^6+\ldots}
\end{align*}$$
I have no idea where to go to solve for $-\frac{1}{π^2}$ now. Please help 
 [/INST] You do not need the Tailor expansion but only the first derivative, the rule of L'Hôpital gives us:
$$
\lim\limits_{x \to 1} \frac{1-x + \ln x}{1+ \cos πx}=\lim\limits_{x \to 1} \frac{\frac{1}{x}-1}{-\pi\,\sin\pi x}=\lim\limits_{x \to 1} \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{x^2}}{-\pi^2\cos\pi x} = -\dfrac{1}{\pi^2}
$$
</s>