<s>[INST] Integral $\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(1+x+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx$ 
Prove that$$I=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(1+x+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=\frac{\pi}{3}\ln(2+\sqrt 3)+\frac43G$$

I've found this integral in my notebook and perhaps I encountered it before since it looks quite familiar.
Anyway I thought it's quite a trivial integral so I'm gonna solve it quickly, but I am having some hard time to finish it. I went on with Feynman's trick:
$$I(a)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln((1+x^2)a+x)}{1+x^2}dx\Rightarrow I'(a)=\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{a+x+ax^2}$$
$$=\frac1a\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{\left(x+\frac{1}{2a}\right)^2+1-\frac{1}{4a^2}}=\frac{1}{a}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{4a^2}}}\arctan\left(\frac{x+\frac{1}{2a}}{\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{4a^2}}}\right)\bigg|_0^\infty$$$$=\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{4a^2-1}}-\frac{2}{\sqrt{4a^2-1}}\arctan\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{4a^2-1}}\right)=\frac{2\arctan\left(\sqrt{4a^2-1}\right)}{\sqrt{4a^2-1}}$$
We can prove easily via the substitution $x\to \frac{1}{x}$ that $I(0)=0$ so we have that:
$$I=I(1)-I(0)=2\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan\left(\sqrt{4a^2-1}\right)}{\sqrt{4a^2-1}}da$$
Now I thought about two substitutions:
$$ \overset{a=\frac12\cosh x}=\int_{\operatorname{arccosh}(0)}^{\operatorname{arccosh}(2)} \arctan(\sinh x)dx$$
$$\overset{a=\frac12\sec x}=\int_{\operatorname{arcsec}(0)}^{\frac{\pi}{3}}\frac{x}{\cos x}dx$$
But in both cases the lower bound is annoying and I think I am missing something here (maybe obvious).
So I would love to get some help in order to finish this.

Edit: We can apply once again Feynman's trick. First consider: $$I(t)=\int_0^1 \frac{2\arctan(t\sqrt{4a^2-1})}{\sqrt{4a^2-1}}da\Rightarrow I'(t)=2\int_0^1 \frac{1}{1+t^2(4a^2-1)}da$$
$$=\frac{1}{t\sqrt{1-t^2}}\arctan\left(\frac{2at}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}\right)\bigg|_0^1=\frac{1}{t\sqrt{1-t^2}}\arctan\left(\frac{2t}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}\right)$$
So once again we have $I(0)=0$, so $I=I(1)-I(0)$.
$$\Rightarrow I=\int_0^1\frac{1}{t\sqrt{1-t^2}}\arctan\left(\frac{2t}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}\right)dt\overset{t=\sin x}=\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\arctan(2\tan x)}{\sin x}dx$$
At this point Mathematica can evaluate the integral to be:
$$I=\frac{\pi}{3}\ln(2+\sqrt 3)+\frac43G$$
I didn't try the last integral yet, but I am thinking of Feynman again $\ddot \smile$.

Edit 2: Found that I already was on it some time ago, and actually posted it here, which means I have solved it before using Feynman's trick, but right now I can't remember how I did it.
So given the circumstances I am positive that it can be solved starting with my approach, but if you have any other ways then feel free to share it.
 [/INST] One more by Feynman’s Technique
Parameterising our integral
$$I=\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln \left(1+x+x^{2}\right)}{1+x^{2}} d x$$
by the integral
$$
I(a)=\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln \left(1+2 x \sin a+x^{2}\right)}{1+x^{2}} d x,
$$
where $a\in [-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]. $
Differentiating $I(a)$ w.r.t. $a$ yields
$$
\begin{aligned}
I^{\prime}(a) &=\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{2 x \cos a}{\left(1+x^{2}\right)\left(1+2 x \sin a+x^{2}\right)} d x \\
&=\cot a\int_{0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}-\frac{1}{1+2 x \sin a+x^{2}}\right) d x \\
&=\cot a\left[\tan ^{-1} x-\frac{1}{\cos a} \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x+\sin a}{\cos a}\right)\right]_{0}^{\infty} \\
&=\cot a\left[\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{1}{\cos a}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-a\right)\right]
\end{aligned}
$$
Integrating $I’(a)$ back to $I(a)$, we have
$$
\begin{aligned}
I\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)- \underbrace{I(0)}_{=\pi\ln 2}  &=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}} \cot a\left[\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{1}{\cos a}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-a\right)\right] d a \\
&=\frac{\pi}{2} \underbrace{ \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}}\left(\cot a-\frac{1}{\sin a}\right) d a}_{=\ln \left(\frac{2+\sqrt{3}}{4}\right)} + \underbrace{\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}} \frac{a}{\sin a} d a}_{K}
\end{aligned}
$$
$$
\begin{aligned}
K &=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}} \frac{a}{\sin a} d a=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}} a\, d\left[\ln \left(\tan \frac{a}{2}\right)\right] \\
&=\left[a \ln \left(\tan \frac{a}{2}\right)\right]_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}}-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{6}} \ln \left(\tan \frac{a}{2}\right) d a \\
&=\frac{\pi}{6} \ln \left(\tan \frac{\pi}{12}\right)-2 \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{12}} \ln (\tan a) d a \\
&=-\frac{\pi}{6} \ln (2+\sqrt{3})+\frac{4}{3} G,
\end{aligned}
$$
where $G$ is the Catalan’s constant and the last integral from post.
Now we can conclude that
$$
\boxed{I=I\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)=\frac{\pi}{3} \ln (2+\sqrt{3})+\frac{4}{3} G}
$$
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