<s>[INST] determining if sequence has upper bound I am somewhat stuck in my calculations when determining if sequence has an upper bound.
The sequence $$x_n = \frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{n+2}+..+\frac{1}{2n-1}+\frac{1}{2n}$$ 
Is equal to $$\frac{1}{n}(\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{n}}+\frac{1}{1+\frac{2}{n}}+..+\frac{1}{1+\frac{n}{n}})$$
And so I notice that all the denominators are greater than 1, which means that all terms in the parentheses are less than 1. 
But how can I determine further if there is an upper bound?
 [/INST] By C-S $$\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{n+i}=1+\sum_{i=1}^n\left(\frac{1}{n+i}-\frac{1}{n}\right)=1-\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{i}{n+i}=$$
$$=1-\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{i^2}{ni+i^2}\leq1-\frac{1}{n}\frac{\left(\sum\limits_{i=1}^ni\right)^2}{\sum\limits_{i=1}^n(ni+i^2)}=1-\frac{1}{n}\frac{\frac{n^2(n+1)^2}{4}}{\frac{n^2(n+1)}{2}+\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}}=$$
$$=1-\frac{3(n+1)}{2(5n+1)}=\frac{7n-1}{10n+2}<\frac{7}{10}.$$
Actually, $$\ln2=0.6931...$$
Cauchy-Schwarz forever!
Actually, by calculus we can show that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow+\infty}\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{n+i}=\ln2.$$
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