<s>[INST] What is wrong with the "proof" for $\ln(2) =\frac{1}{2}\ln(2)$? I have got a question which is as follows:

Is  $\ln(2)=\frac{1}{2}\ln(2)$??

The following argument seems suggesting that the answer is yes:

We have the series $1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\cdots$
  which has a mathematically determined value $\ln(2)=0.693$. 
Now, let's do some rearrangement:
$$1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{7}-\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{9}-\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{11}-\frac{1}{12}......$$
   $$
 (1-\frac{1}{2})-\frac{1}{4}+(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{6})-\frac{1}{8}+(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{10})-\frac{1}{12}.......$$
  $$\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{10}-\frac{1}{12}......$$
   $$\frac{1}{2}(1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{7}-\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{9}-\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{11}-\frac{1}{12}......)$$
$$\frac{1}{2}\ln(2).$$


I know that mathematics can't be wrong, and I have done something wrong. But here is my question: where does the argument above go wrong?
 [/INST] Such regrouping of a series is just not guaranteed not to alter the limit or even preserve convergence. 
It would be admissible if the series were absolutely convergent, that is the series of absolute values would converges. But, the current series does not converge absolutely. 
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