<s>[INST] Explain why calculating this series could cause paradox? $$\ln2 = 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \cdots
      = (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) - 2(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots)$$
     $$= (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) - (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) = 0$$
thanks.
 [/INST] In this chain of 4 equations,  #1, #3 and #4 are correct, and no.2 is the mistake. The equations are assertions about (limits of) some finite sums. Let $H_n = \Sigma_{j=1}^n 1/j$ and $A_n = \Sigma_{i=1}^n (-1)^{i-1} 1/i$.
The correct formula is $A_n = H_n - H_{[n/2]}$ (which is approximately $\log(n) - \log(n/2) \sim \log(2) = A_{\infty}$) , but the second equation cut off at $n$ terms is claiming $A_n = H_n - H_n$ (which is zero).
</s>