<s>[INST] The Basel problem As I have heard people did not trust Euler when he first discovered the formula (solution of the Basel problem)
$$\zeta(2)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
However, Euler was Euler and he gave other proofs.
I believe many of you know some nice proofs of this, can you please share it with us?
 [/INST] Define the following series for $ x > 0 $
$$\frac{\sin x}{x} = 1 - \frac{x^2}{3!}+\frac{x^4}{5!}-\frac{x^6}{7!}+\cdots\quad.$$
Now substitute $ x = \sqrt{y}\ $ to arrive at 
$$\frac{\sin \sqrt{y}\ }{\sqrt{y}\ } = 1 - \frac{y}{3!}+\frac{y^2}{5!}-\frac{y^3}{7!}+\cdots\quad.$$
if we find the roots of $\frac{\sin \sqrt{y}\ }{\sqrt{y}\ } = 0 $ we find that 
$ y = n^2\pi^2\ $ for $ n \neq 0 $ and $ n $ in the integers
With all of this in mind, recall that for a polynomial
$ P(x) = a_{n}x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} +\cdots+a_{1}x + a_{0} $ with roots
$ r_{1}, r_{2}, \cdots , r_{n} $ 
$$\frac{1}{r_{1}} + \frac{1}{r_{2}} + \cdots + \frac{1}{r_{n}} = -\frac{a_{1}}{a_{0}}$$
Treating the above series for $ \frac{\sin \sqrt{y}\ }{\sqrt{y}\ } $ as polynomial we see that
$$\frac{1}{1^2\pi^2} + \frac{1}{2^2\pi^2} + \frac{1}{3^2\pi^2} + \cdots =  -\frac{-\frac{1}{3!}}{1}$$
then multiplying both sides by $ \pi^2 $ gives the desired series.
$$\frac{1}{1^2} + \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \cdots =  \frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
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