<s>[INST] Proving that $\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2} \geq \frac{8}{(a+b)^2}$ for $a,b>0$ I found something that I'm not quite sure about when trying to prove this inequality.
I've proven that 
$$\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}\geq \dfrac{4}{a+b}$$
already. My idea now is to replace $a$ with $a^2$ and $b^2$, so we now have 
$$\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}\geq \dfrac{4}{a^2+b^2}$$
So to prove the required result, we just need to show that 
$$\dfrac{4}{a^2+b^2} \geq \dfrac{8}{(a+b)^2}$$
or equivalently
$$(a+b)^2 \geq 2(a^2+b^2)$$
But this inequality cannot be true since the pair $(a,b)=(1,2)$ doesn't work. If anything, the reverse is always true!
What have I done wrong here?
 [/INST] Use Holder
$$\left(\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}\right)(a+b)(a+b)\ge (1+1)^3=8$$
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