A party's consent to a treaty is invalid if it had been given by an agent or body without power to do so under <answer>that state's domestic law</answer>. States are reluctant to inquire into the internal affairs and processes of other states, and so a "manifest violation" is required such that it would be "objectively evident to any State dealing with the matter". A strong presumption exists internationally that a head of state has acted within his proper authority. It seems that no treaty has ever actually been invalidated on this provision.[citation needed]
A party's consent to a treaty is invalid if it had been given by an agent or body without power to do so under what?
that state's domestic law