title: Is O(n!) same as O((n+1)!)?
body: <p>Because O(n<sup>2</sup>) is same as O((n+k)<sup>2</sup>) where k is any constant. Hence can the above statement be true with the same logic?</p>
  
  <p>For eg:
  O((n+1)<sup>2</sup>) => O(n<sup>2</sup> + n + 1) => O(n<sup>2</sup>)</p>