title: (...()) vs. (...)() in javascript closures
body: <p>I know this is silly, but there's any difference between this:</p>
  
  <pre><code>(function() {  
      var foo = 'bar';  
  })();
  </code></pre>
  
  <p>and this?</p>
  
  <pre><code>(function() {  
      var foo = 'bar';  
  }());
  </code></pre>
  
  <p><a href="http://www.jslint.com/" rel="noreferrer">JSLint</a> tells us to <code>Move the invocation into the parens that contain the function</code>, but I see no need to.</p>
  
  <p><strong>Edit:</strong> The answers are too cool. <code>~function</code>, the <a href="http://www.jshint.com/" rel="noreferrer">JSHint</a> alternative along with jQuery's preference for <code>(/***/)();</code> and Crockford's explanation! I thought I was going to just get a "they're the same thing" kind of answer.<br>
  You guys decide the best one through upvotes and I tick it.</p>