text: It is equally possible/probable that sections were omitted by the scribes and monks (many of them uneducated and seeking favor with superiors and local bishops) and is why one should never look at one gospel in exclusion of others, as well as additional information from other sources.  Most Biblical scholars have asked a different question then the one that first comes to mind: instead of  "why do only two gospels refer to the presence of women...?" they ask "If it is stated in two of the Gospels, why is it not in the others?"  The presumption being on the first inclusion of women in the Resurrection event.  It makes sense when one recalls how all of the Apostles abandoned Jesus once He was arrested and then killed.  They were in fear and complete doubt in that upper room, and it took the appearance of Jesus resurrected to bring them to faith once more.  At times like this I miss Rev. McBride even more then usual!