text: " For my part, I cannot help but fall back on what these bishops themselves teach, and ultimately, what they define as a sacrament. The church has developed a language to discuss the numinous. That language speaks of an outward sign associated with an inward change or grace..."
  
  Forgive me, but I'm not alluding to the sexual abuse scandal, but to your  comment above.
  
  Were not the bishops in 325 CE mandated to abide by Constantine's interpretation and promulgation of  the 4 gospels as then interpreted by Constantine in order to consolidate his empire ?
  
  In light of this, how do you reconcile what the bishops " teach " especially since only baptism and Eucharist are contained in the 4 gospels ?
  
  But - since the bishops have been proven to be prevaricators and filled with greed and the whole-scaled attempt to discredit those abused  is their raison d'eetre, why should any non-brainwashed person believe anything they " teach " ?