text: Problem is the Church's interpretation is utterly unsupported by the text; it is a completely non-tenable reading into scripture what is simply not there. What is double strange about this mis-reading is that it is the opposite of most incorrect readings by Christians--the reading is the very opposite of fundamentalistic literal reading, when a literal reading is exactly correct. Jesus here was reaffirming Leviticus which recognizes divorce for adultery.
  
  Therefore, the question AnnieO asks is still on the table.
  
  BTW, other Christians who read this scripture as it stands do end up accepting divorce where adultery is present.