text: Well the Samaritan adulteress is being offered Jesus himself, by Jesus, for her salvation even though Jesus just previously stated he knows she has divorced several times and is now living with a man she is not married to.  This scripture is also in the Gospel just like the divorce statement so why is he offering her salvation if he only plans on later on keeping life saving and strengthening Holy Eucharist from her?  It does not make sense unless Jesus would prefer we not treat sacraments as rewards for good behavior - that is not their purpose.   However, gaining access to sacraments does not mean that the sin someone may have committed thru divorce and remarriage is something Jesus believes is righteous or should be taught as acceptable or in any way not a sin - he clearly does not believe this either.