Wouldn't these results, if valid, have been observed already through simple comparative observations of brain functioning in later years of Muslim populations (mostly don't drink) to non-Muslim populations (mostly do drink)? Or is there too little cultural cross over in the health care fields to allow casual comparative observations? I tend to think this apparently statistically strong conclusion would already have been confirmed by medical professionals were it so clearly true. And so what if I'm in personal denial on this one.