I can't answer for Malumba nor give you a citation offhand but it is certainly true that someone who has been drinking large amounts of alcohol is considered mentally impaired and the mentally impaired cannot give meaningful consent. But please I would rather my question not be dragged down into the bushes of "not really relevant" side discussions.

My years of reading press reports leads me to believe that there is a double standard. If a man takes a drunken woman to bed he seems to have committed a crime based on her not being able to have given consent. How is it that the same standard is not applied against the woman? I do not think there has ever been a case where a woman has been charged with sexual assault for having sex with a drunken man. That is despite the fact that as a result he runs the risk of STD's and the psychological and financial trauma of being forced into parenthood if a pregnancy results.