So apparently the cops are saying that some alleged sexual assaults are not in fact sexual assaults at all, thus raising the issue of definition.

The lead example from the story is of a woman who is sexually exploited while drunk. Did her alleged assailants deliberately get her drunk or did they take advantage of her drunkenness?

If the former, then there's a crime, a conspiracy to rape. But the latter case is problematic. Does it mean that men must never have sex with women who are drunk?