our law doesn't require the accused to prove no consent. It hasn't for more than 20 years now.
it in fact requires the accused to prove they believed they had consent. It's the basis for affirmative consent which has been law since I believe 1993 or so.
Frankly, your second comment scares the crap out of me!!

so the man needs consent before, during and AFTER?? really?? so retroactive consent, that's your position.
Well heaven help you pal, keep your fingers crossed no woman you sleep with should get miffed with you afterwards, cause in your fantasy world...you're going to jail.
Great logic guy, really, really solid.