Paul explains why he says what he says by reasoning from the scriptural account of the order of creation, the scriptural account of sin entering mankind, and from the natural law that the woman bears children for the man.  That is not a translation error.

In checking twenty-seven English translations of the 2:12 text.  Overwhelmingly the word is translated 'authority.' A couple times it is translated, 'to rule over' or 'have dominion over.'  This is not a Greek word problem.

Are you qualified to say most English translations miss it totally?  The translators are not trying to miss it. They endevor to translate correctly.  John Calvin for one would try and get it right I'm sure.

What do you make of Paul's reasoning Timo?  You skipped passed it entirely.  Missed it totally.  On purpose?