The same Statistics Canada survey that shows a 12% gap in full-time hourly wages that favors men, also shows a 9% gap in average part-time hourly wages that favors women.  (CANSIM table 22-0072).

Why did the writer fail to note the gender gap in part-time wages that favors women?  The data was directly in front of her.  Is it maybe because those facts didn't fit her agenda?  It seems the writer couldn't find any real discrimination - in which women are paid less to do the same job - and so she cherry-picked the data to try to find a scintilla of evidence for her preconceived notions.

Pathetic.  But I don't expect anything better from the Globe.