Reading some of the comments indicating disagreement about the views expressed by Pope Francis and the decrees of Vatican II I cannot help thinking that some of the problems go all the way back to Vatican I and a clear understanding of what constitutes an infallible teaching. Some people seem to feel that any statement made by a bishop or monsignor in the Vatican is infallible while the other extreme is the gang who feel that only those formal statements by the pope to which they unanimously agree can claim infallibility. Francis seems to hold that the sensus fidelium is a relevant factor in the process. Others seem to point out that infallibility refers only to doctrinal pronouncements addressed to all the faithful, not to approval or disapproval of conduct by individuals.
If we can clarify what the dissenters mean by the teaching authority of the Church we can skip a lot of silly debates.
Bill Keane