Were that provable, the discussion would have ended a half century ago.

I am very familiar with the "written documents" and, no, there is no agreement that they mean what you purport they mean.

The complete lack of any of these clerics in not only the Catholic Church, but both the non-Chalcedonian and Chalcedonian eastern churches, seems odd if the facts were as you allege.

As an aside, since bishops were unmarried East and West, where did "women married to bishops" come from?