<<there is not one shred of evidence in the Gospel or the rest of the NT that He changed His teaching or ameliorated His Gospel message to accommodate the misgivings Jewish or secular society had about it.>>

There was no "secular" society in the 1st century Mediterranean world, and the early Jesus followers were, of course, Jewish. It's impossible to determine from the gospels whether Jesus ever "changed His teaching." As you know, the gospels were written decades after the Crucifixion by unknown authors who were almost certainly not witnesses to Christ's historical ministry.

How many Christians give all their wealth away to live like a lily of the field until the Day of the Lord? Though I admit I'm feeling more apocalyptic by the day.