As so often in these threads, I find myself calling for more nuance. Partly because of the limited chatacters format.

Yes, there is a very close connection between the way the Eucharist is celebrated and the words and actions of Jesus at the Last Supper. I believe that very connection is represented by the three synoptic Gospel accounts plus Paul's, but that those accounts are already influenced by the way the community is celebrating the Eucharist.

So, for example, in your critical reading of Scripture you might notice that in the original Greek, Paul and Luke use the verb eucharistein, whereas Matthew and Mark used the verb eulogein. Anyone who wants to say the Gospel pericopes give us an exact account of Jesus' words has a problem explaining this difference.

The simple explanation is that these scripture texts are presenting the Last Supper in the terminology of how the community celebrated the Eucharist. There was unity in purpose and intent, but diversity of actual practice.