If it is inarguable that  more-available contraception leads to fewer abortions, is it not literally demanded, even for the most ardent abortion foes, to view non-abortifacient contraception as "anti-abortion"?  

Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc: After contraception is more available, abortion is reduced. If "fewer abortions" really is the main goal--and a USCCB-allowed single-issue voting premise--why isn't reducing abortion by every means possible a moral mandate? 

Yes, many religions join with Catholics in arguing for religious liberty, but even the most pro-life, conservative, Trump-supporting evangelical pastors consider contraception an allowable--even an oft-commendable--aspect of family planning and marital relations.. 

Many are confused at the seeming equivalency Catholic leaders assign to the issues and, to be honest, feel it can get in the way of anti-abortion legislation advocacy.

Is there not monumental irony here? What am I missing?