Odd.  Sanctions were o.k. against South Africa (because they discriminated against black people).  They're o.k. against Russia (because they grabbed Crimea).  They're o.k. against Iran (because they might--or might not--be building nuclear capability).  They're o.k. against North Korea (because they're just plain nuts).  If you're the US, they're o.k. against Cuba (because they have a different political system and refused to bow down in obeisance to their American Masters).  So if they're applied against Israel, why are they automatically rejected as "anti-semitic" (which is itself an inaccurate designation, as many Arabic people are also semites)?   Sanctions and other more severe measures are warranted against aggression and apartheid, whether based on race, religion, or any other slice-and-dice, and irrespective of whether or not the aggressors were, in the past, victims of others' aggression.  Israel must be measured by the same rules applied to everyone else.