A use of force delivered with bias to race (and not purely behavior driven) is a big problem. Data presented in the article does nothing to scientifically support that this bias exists. We can be inspired to have hunches (and I am), but a real scientifically-driven exposure of injustice requires a measure of force actionable offenses as they relate to force actually delivered compared to race of force recipient, right?

To defend the data presented as proof of injustice is to assume that each race equally engages in force actionable offenses. Why should I assume this? I wouldn't be surprised if oppressed people (black Americans in this case) were proportionately more frustrated with their captors. Frustration begets violence among other outcomes, predictably...but why should a scientific perspective include a data-free prediction of each race behaving the same?