I'm afraid I still don't understand. Sorry. Obviously, I'm from the U.S. As in Canada, we have different races, of course, with all the struggles this entails. However, to me "being racialized" seems to mean that anybody can decide which race he or she is, and therefore whether he or she is discriminated against or not. So, if -- for example -- a white person has to be subjected to Ms. Khan's vile language, can't that person declare himself or herself "racialized"? The whole thing just seems utterly incomprehensible. (BTW, having to sit at the back of the bus was a long, long time ago. We really are better than that by now.)