Try that on someone who hasn't taken genetics classes.  XXY and XYY don't correlate to "sexual preference", or you'd find that genetic "pattern" in a preponderance of homosexuals.  In fact you don't, because as noted above there is no such correlation.  That's a classic "apples and oranges" comparison.

And your "multifactorial traits" argument describes, in its simplest form, mere genetic expression in phenotype: "dominance" vs. "recessive" in characters such as eye color (or hemophilia).  Difference between that and the fallacy to which you attempt to apply it is that there are genes corresponding to those phenotypes, even if they're not completely expressed (as is the case with skin melanin content/expression in my children and grandchildren).  You have none corresponding to "sexual preference."

You perforce resorted to attempted "baffle" because "dazzle" was beyond you.  And in the process fooled only your self.  There's science (my argument) and wishful thinking (yours).  NEXT!