Unless it exists as a natural phenomenon.  If it does, gays, like all people, have a right to sexuality.  Nothing obscure about that.  This is why the CDF did obscure the issue by calling homosexuality disordered, not the behavior, the actual state of being gay, because if it is natural there is no moral bar to sodomy in a natural law setting.  You can still look to scripture, but then you need to divine the intent of the scripture.  Was it universal moral law? (no) or a way to build a national morality for the Jews in capitivity? (yes)