Here's what I think her point was: when women were fighting for the right to vote, they behaved themselves, unlike the women's marchers. If the women who fought for the right to vote had not behaved or had been vulgar, they would not have won the right to vote.

Do you disagree with that re-statement? The replies from me and others have all been, "but the women who fought for the right to vote did not behave, and were considered vulgar". I don't see that as a smokescreen at all. I'm curious what you think the point of her was.