In this task, you are given a public comment from online platforms. You are expected to classify the comment into two classes: sexual-explicit and non-sexual-explicit. A comment is considered sexual-explicit if it explicitly portrays sexual matters.
Example: Comment: President lied under oath about consensual sex...
Not the same thing as rape.
Example solution: Sexual-explicit
Example explanation: This comment explicitly mentions "consensual sex" and "rape", and thus is sexual-explicit.

Problem: Comment: I don't know if the bishops ever told priests that if they rape a child and celebrate Mass they are committing sacrilege.  But even if they didn't, the priest should know that...it is pretty basic Catholicism that receiving Communion with a mortal sin on your soul is sacrilege. 

By the logic of your second paragraph, there can never be a mortally sinful sexual act, since sex acts by definition occur in a state of passion.  Which begs the question, why in this case would the Scriptures go through the trouble of condemning sexual immorality? This sounds like something your example of a rapist priest could say to himself to justify himself taking Communion in a state of mortal sin.

Solution: Sexual-explicit