Even though Congress's pattern has been to treat all authors equally? I mean, the reason that it's been prospective and retrospective is that people should be, people who hold copyrights should be subject to the same regime and not have some people who got their copyrights the week before the law passed treated differently than people who got it the week after.
Does this next sentence follow, given the preceding text?
There are copyrights.


 * Yes;
 * It's impossible to say;
 * No;