
John 1:1 says (NKJV - the little green gideon someone forced on me one day)
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was 
God."  The Word refers to Jesus Christ so from this John declares that God
and Jesus are one.  Therefore, "The Lord" refers to both.  Also, David in the
Psalms refers to both God in heaven and the coming messiah as his Lord.  Once
again this refers to God and Jesus.

   swear/curse?  Does it say anything about this in the bible?

Some of the most "truly religious" people I've known have not been Christians
and some of the greatest Christians I've known have been truly irreligious.
However, to answer your question:
The bible speaks of this in many places, A previous post to James is a good
one.  Another is Psalm 15:
"Lord, who may abide in your tabernacle?  Who may dwell in your holy hill?  He
who walks uprightly, and works righteousness, and speaks the truth in his heart
He who does not backbite with his tongue, nor does evil to his neighbor, nor
does he take up a reproach against his friend; I whose eyes a vile person is
despised, but he honors those who fear the Lord; he who swears to his own hurt
and does not change; He who does not put out money at usury, nor does he take
a bribe aginst the innocent.  He who does these things shall never be moved."

------------------------------------------------------------
Rob Coffey                    "Indeed the safest road to 
coffey@cptc1.neep.wisc.edu     Hell is the gradual one- the
(if you send mail to cptc2     gentle slope, soft underfoot,
 I'll never read it)           without sudden turnings, 
                               without milestones, without
                               signposts."  -- Screwtape