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:      For that matter, stay Biblical and call it Omar Rasheet (The Feast of
: First Fruits).  Torah commands that this be observed on the day following
: the Sabbath of Passover week.  (Sunday by any other name in modern
: parlance.)  Why is there so much objection to observing the Resurrection
: on the 1st day of the week on which it actually occured?  Why jump it all
: over the calendar the way Easter does?  Why not just go with the Sunday
: following Passover the way the Bible has it?  Why seek after unbiblical
: methods?
:  
In fact, that is the reason Easter "jumps all over the calendar"- Passsover
itself is a lunar holiday, not a solar one, and thus falls over a wide
possible span of times.  The few times that Easter does not fall during or
after Passover are because Easter is further linked to the Vernal Equinox-
the beginning of spring.

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:  
:       So what does this question have to do with Easter (the whore
: goddess)?  I am all for celebrating the Resurrection.  Just keep that
: whore out of the discussion.
:  
Your obsession with the term "whore" clouds your argument.  "Whore" is
a value judgement, not a descriptive term.

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Overall, this argument is an illustration of the "etymological fallacy"
(see J.P. Louw: _Semantics of NT Greek_).  That is the idea that the true
meaning of a word lies in its origins and linguistic form.  In fact, our
own experience demonstrates that the meaning of a word is bound up with
how it is _used_, not where it came from.  Very few modern people would
make any connection whatsoever between "Easter" and "Ishtar."  If Daniel
Seagard does, then for him it has that meaning.  But that is a highly
idiosyncratic "meaning," and not one that needs much refutation.