



	It was for the purpose of establishing a state, not an
exclusive state.  If the state was to be exclusive, it would not have
400 000 arab citizens.

	And no, I do not consider the purchase of land a hostile
action.  When someone wants to buy land, and someone else is willing
to sell it, at a mutually agreeable price, then that is commerce.  It
is not a hostile action leading to war.


	Oh, you mean like both Jews and Arabs being citizens?  The
arabs who stayed are now citizens, with as much right to choose who
they vote for as the Jews.


	Huh?  The people who left, did so voluntarily.  There is no
reason for Israel to let them in.


	Israel got no western aid in 1948, nor in 1949 or 50...It
still granted citizenship to those arabs who remained.  And how
is granting citizenship a facade?



	Try again, you tell me what its isn't, but you fail to
establish what it is.

	Also, Jews did have history in Israel for over a thousand
years.  There were lots of Jews slaughtered by Crusaders in Israel.
There was a thriving community in Gaza city from roughly 1200-1500.
Jews were a majority in Jerusalem from 1870 or so onwards.  Does that
make the land Jewish?

Adam


Adam Shostack 				       adam@das.harvard.edu