text:  Why if a case be so clear so free from doubt that no man no attorney barrister or judge ever entertained any scruple concerning it--if the rule have been uniformly acted upon and constantly recognised is it to be said that because there is no express decision it is not to be considered _law_? Why that argument leads to this conclusion--that the more clear a question is the more free from doubt the more uncertain it must be! _My lords what constitutes the law of this country? It is--usage practice recognition