The Gemara in Eiruvin 54b says:

באהבתה תשגה תמיד כגון רבי (אליעזר) בן פדת אמרו עליו על רבי (אליעזר) שהיה יושב ועוסק בתורה בשוק התחתון של ציפורי וסדינו מוטל בשוק העליון של ציפורי (תניא) א''ר יצחק בן אלעזר פעם אחת בא אדם ליטלו ומצא בו שרף

Soncino Translation:

With her love wilt thou be ravished always, as was the case with R. Eleazar4 b. Pedath, for instance. It was said of K. Eleazar that he sat and studied Torah in the lower market of Sepphoris while his linen cloak lay in the upper market of the town. R. Isaac b. Eleazar related: A man once came to take it and found a venomous serpent in it.

Rashi says:

באהבתה תשגה תמיד. בשביל אהבתה תעשה עצמך שוגה ופתי להניח עסקיך ולרוץ לדבר הלכה:

I would like to know what the difference would be betwen what Rashi did say (Ta'aseh) as opposed to if he said "bishvil ahavasah assei atzmecha etc. "

My motivation for asking this question is: either I will learn something about grammar and/or I will learn something about Rashi's intention by contrasting a similar wording of the same idea with a slight variation. Whether the inference resulting from the variance was part of what Rashi had in mind could end up being debatable (diyuk eino muchrach).

Additionally I do not feel the need to provide why I think any alternative would be better in order to ask this question (contrary to what some people wrote in the comments) since my question is a standard question to be asked on Rashi when applicable. This is clear from the sefer Darchei HaTalmud by Rav Yitzchak Kanpanton (1360–1463) (Wikipedia ) who writes "At the beginning of your inquiry into the Commentators on the Talmud... And after you know the intention of his words and his explanation, be exacting and see what is the opposite and alternative...

You can see this paragraph here: Darchei HaTalmud Siman 1

  • "when applicable" Why is this case an applicable one? Why aren't you asking about עשו or יעשה or עושות? You can claim it's allowed as much as you want, but unless you explain why your question is sufficiently interesting, no one will care much about it. – Double AA Aug 28 '14 at 12:33

Assei is an action as reffering to the one doing it. Taaseh is passive inflexive of who or what the action was done do. A mitzvas lo saasei means an act which should not be done, it does not mean an act of not doing. When reffering to a person doing something to himself the wording is inconsequential in many cases in English, but in hebrew refocuses the intent. In English we say a person dressed himself, we don't say he made himself dressed. Sometimes you can say both terms such as a person got himself ready or a person readied himself. Taaseh atzmicha shogeh upessi refocuse the intent on the subject, to make of yourself a fool and simpleton. Assei atzmicha is reffering to act involved to achieve it.

  • That is not what taase means. – msh210 Aug 27 '14 at 12:36

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