Baptism and John 3:5

by Matt Slick


There are five basic interpretations of this section of scripture in reference to water.

  1. The water refers to the natural birth.
  2. The water refers to the Word of God.
  3. The water refers to the Holy Spirit.
  5. The water refers to the water of baptism as a requirement for salvation.

The first option looks to the context of Jesus' words dealing with being born "again" (3:3).  Nicodemus responds by mentioning the experience of being born from the womb (v. 4).  Jesus then speaks of water and the Spirit and then says, "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit." (3:6).  The implication is that the first birth is the natural birth, and the second birth is the spiritual birth.  In other words, the water refers to the water of the womb--the first birth.  This seems to have support in the understanding of Nicodemus about entering into the womb to be born a second time.  However, this view is not the most commonly held view.

The second option holds that the water is referring to the Word of God.  Eph. 5:26 says, "that He might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word." Some believe that the washing of water is done by means of the Word of God.


The fourth view holds that the water is in reference to the water baptism of repentance taught by John the Baptist.  Matt. 3:1-6 describes John's ministry in the desert, his teaching about repentance, and baptizing people into that repentance. Contextually, the first chapter of John mentions John the Baptist in verses 6-8 and 19-36.  Certainly, John and his ministry is in view here.  If this is the case, then Jesus would have been speaking of the "baptism" (the initiatory ordinance) of repentance preached by John the Baptist.

The fifth view is the one held by the International Church of Christ and other churches that require baptism in order to be saved.  They state that the water is referring to baptism and that it is essential to salvation.

Does John 3:5 teach that baptism is essential to salvation?

As you can see, there are different interpretations to John 3:5.  But, to say simply that John 3:5 does not teach the necessity of baptism isn't enough.  Some sort of proof must be offered.  The proof is found in God's word--the word that has no contradictions.  Clearly, salvation is by faith. For example, Rom. 5:1 states that we are justified (declared righteous) by faith.  It does not say faith and baptism.  If baptism were part of salvation, then it would say we were justified by faith and baptism.  But it does not.  If justification is by faith, then it is by faith.  Baptism is not faith. It is a ceremony.  It is something we do as a ritual.  Furthermore, please consider the following verses which declare how we are saved.

  6. Gal. 3:8, "And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham."

Additionally, Paul tells us that the gospel is what saves us and that the gospel is the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus (1 Cor. 15:1-4). Baptism is not included in the description of the gospel.  This explains why he said he came to preach the gospel--not to baptize: "I am thankful that I did not baptize any of you except Crispus and Gaius, so no one can say that you were baptized into my name.  (Yes, I also baptized the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I don't remember if I baptized anyone else.)  For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel . . . " (1 Cor. 1:14-17).  If baptism is necessary for salvation, then why did Paul downplay it and even exclude it from the description of what is required for salvation?  It is because baptism isn't necessary for salvation.  Therefore, John 3:5 must be interpreted in a manner consistent with the rest of scripture.






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