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Wednesday, August 22, 2007

Nursing Board Exam Practice Test 2


1. When can trained hilot attend to a delivery?

a. When at a time of delivery, no licensed personnel trained on maternal care is around
b. When the patient is living in a remote area
c. When the worker is considered to have a high risk pregnancy
d. The mother requested the hilot to attend to the delivery

2. What mineral supplement is given to a pregnant woman in the third trimester of pregnancy?

a. Vit.C
b. Fe
c. Ca
d. FolicAcid

3. The following are benefits of breastfeeding to the infant except:

a. Provides a nutritionally complete food for the young infant
b. Strengthens the infants immune system, preventing many infections
c. Reduces the infant's exposure to infection
d. Provides a natural method of delaying pregnancies

4. Perception of a toddler about illness is:

a. Life threatening
b. Punishment for wrong doings
c. A necessary part of life
d. The will of god

5. Most common manifestation of Anemia

a. Weight loss
b. Fatigue
c. Ahorexia
d. Poor digestion

6. The following are needs of infants

I. Comfort
II. Sleep
III. Stimulation
IV. Modern paraphernalia

a. I, III, IV
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, III

7. Which drug is not contraindicated to a patient in a first trimester of pregnancy.

a. Paracetamol
b. Cytoxan
c. Terbutahe
d. Calcium Lactate

8. Which can be given to a patient with hyperemesis gravidarum to relieve the signs & symptoms?

a. Have the patient eat crackers before rising from the bed in the morning
b. Offer water with meals
c. Let the patient choose what she feels like eating
d. Let the patient stay on bed until the feelings of nausea subsides.

9. When can you inform an adopted child that he/she is adopted?

a. When he/she asks where he/she came from.
b. Wait until the child reaches age of majority.
c. When he/she shows interest in story telling.
d. Watery and greenish

10. A new mother asks the nurse to describe the normal stool pattern of a breast-fed neonate. The nurse correctly describe the stool as being:

a. Watery and golden yellow
b. Pasty and yellow
c. Thick, black, and odories
d. Watery and greenish brown

11. For immunization of pregnant women, which tetanus toxoid is given as early as possible during pregnancy?

a. TT3
b. TT4
c. TT1
d. TT2

12. A woman uses a diaphragm as contraceptive. You would instruct her to return to the clinic to have hem diaphragm fit checked after which of the following circumstances?

a. Cervical infection
b. A weight gain of 20 pounds
c. A vaginal infection
d. Six n-onths of non-use

13. When a woman uses a vaginal spermicide, which of the following techniques should she use?

a. Coitus should be followed by a douche within 6 hours
b. Insert the product by applicator no more than 1 hour prior to coitus
c. Keep a feminine hygiene product available to use in case her supply of spermicide runs out
d. Place the product near the vaginal orifice for immediate contact instead of back of the vagina.

14. The hormone that is secreted by the corpus luteum and prepares the endometrium implantation is:

a. Estrogen
b. Luteinizing
c. Progestorene
d. Prostaglandin

15. Which hormone causes spinnbarkeit and ferning to occur?

a. FS H
b. Gn RH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen

16.The pregnant patient is in her third month when she makes her second prenatal visit. She asks the nurse "what is happening right now in the development of the baby?" The nurse answer:

a. "The heart is beginning to pump bloods."
b. "The brain is dividing into section,"
c. "Lanugo and vernix caseosa are forming to protect the embryo."
d. "The embryo is becoming a fetus and sex is determined."

17.A new patient states, "I must be about four months pregnant. I cannot remember exactly my last menstrual period, but I have been feeling the baby kicking for 3 to 4 weeks now." Upon auscultation the nurse hears fetal heart sounds. The nurse stales that this assessment indicates:

a. "You are not quite four months."
b. "You are in your fifth months."
c. "You may be six months along."
d. "You are probably seven months pregnant."

18. The nurse is doing an initial assessment with the pregnant patient who states that she is a strict vegetarian. What vitamin supplement should be recommended?

a. A
b. C
c. D
d. B12

19.The best method to prevent hemorrhage after caesarian birth is to:

a. Provide regular analgesics to enhance urination
b. Reposition the woman from side to side
c. Observe vital signs for falling blood pressure
d. Assess the uterine fundus regularly for firmness

20.When teaching the postpartum woman about peripads, the nurse should tell her that:

a. She can change tampons when the initial perineal soreness goes away
b. Pads having cold packs within them, usually hold more lochia than regular pads
c. Blood-soaked pads must be returned in a plastic bag to the hospital after discharge
d. The pads should be' applied and removed in a front-to-back direction

21 .To prevent breast engorgement, the nurse should teach the non-lactating postpartum woman to:

a. Maintain loose-fitting clothing over her breast
b. Pump the breast briefly if they become painful
c. Limit fluid intake to suppress milk production
d. Wear a well-fitting bra or breast binder constantly

22. The woman who has just completed her 13th weeks of pregnancy comes in for her monthly visit. The nurse expresses concern regarding the weight gain. The patient asks, 'Well, how much weight should I have gained by now? The answer is:

a. "About 10lbs."
b. “Not more than 2 to 3 Ibs.”
c. "Not more than 10 Ibs."
d. "No weight gain is expected this soon."

23. The pregnant patient asks the nurse when she should start breastfeeding. The nurse replies:

a. "When your milk comes down."
b. "As soon as possible after delivery." '
c. "In two or three days when you are feeling better."
d. "I do not recommend breast-feeding."

24.The patient is being administered oxytocin at 14 mi U/min. At what point would the nurse DC the infusion.

a. If the patient is not going into labor
b. If the patient is in too much pain
c. Contractions lasting more than 40 seconds
d. Contractions lasting more than 6 seconds

25. In explaining the pattern of discharge following delivery, the nurse explains than lochia will be heavier.

a. in the morning
b. at night
c. as lochia cessation nears
d. toward the end of lactation

26. Choose correct pre-operative teaching before planned caesarian birth.

a. Oral intake will be limited to clear fluids for 12 hours before surgery
b. Intravenous fluids are usually continued for two days after birth
c. The woman will be asked to take deep breaths and cough regularly after birth.
d. The nurse will help her ambulate to the restroom to urine within 4 hours of birth.

27. Twelve hours after birth, a mother a lies in bed resting although she will be discharged in another 12 hours, she does not ask about her baby provide any care. What is the probable reason for her behavior?

a. She is still in the taking in phase maternal adaptation
b. She shows behaviors that may lead to postpartum depression
c. She is still affected by medications given during labor
d. She may be dissatisfied with some aspect of the new born

28.A newborn is rooming in with his teenage mother, who is watching TV. The nurse notes that the baby is awake and quite.

a. Pick the baby up and point out his behaviors to the mother
b. Tell the mother to pick up her baby and talk with him while he is awake
c. Focus care on the mother, rather than the infant so that she can recuperate
d. Encourage the mother to feed the infant before he begin crying

29. A woman is considering having a tubal ligation after she giyes birth to her second child. The nurse should counsel her that:

a. She should breast feed until several months after birth to be certain that the infant is healthy
b. The procedure should be considered permanent and irreversible
c. Steralization is an easier procedure to perform after the postpartum period

30. How should a woman take oral contraceptives?

a. On an empty stomach with a full glass of water
b. At about the same time each day
c. Before every episode of intercourse
d. In the morning and at bed time

31. Choose the safety teaching related oral contraceptives?

a. A barrier method should also be used to protect from infection
b. Nausea suggests that stroke may be imminent
c. A toxic shock syndrome is more likely to occur when the pill is used
d. Increase fluids if urinary frequency or urgency occurs

32. The intrauterine device is an appropriate contraceptive for the woman who:

a. Has unplanned intercourse with several partners
b. Was recently hospitalized for treatment of a pelvic infection
c. Is in mutually monogamous relationship
d. Has had two ectopic pregnancies

33. The woman who is receiving methorexate for an ectopic pregnancy should be cautioned to avoid:

a. Driving or operating machinery
b. Eating raw vegetables or fruits
c. Using latex condoms for intercourse
d. Taking vitamin with folic acid

34.To reduce the risk for toxic shock syndrome, women should be taught to:

a. Avoid changing tampons until they are thoroughly saturated
b. Use a diaphragm with spermicidal jelly during the menstrual period
c. Wash hand thoroughly before inserting a tampon or diaphragm into the vagina
d. Limit the use of super absorbent tampons to the times when the flow is heavy

35. Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:

a. Thin, slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 centimeter
b. Cloudy, with a mild odor, and should stretch to at least 6 centimeter
c. Thick, clear, and of a large quantity
d. Thin and tinged with a small of blood

36. An ovulation, the basal body temperature usually:

a. Rises abruptly and then falls after 1 or 2 days
b. Falls and remains low for the last half of the cycle.
c. Is higher during the first half of the cycle than in the last half
d. Falls slightly at ovulation and is higher during the last half of the cycle

37. The goals of maternal and child health nursing are:

I. That every child lives and grows up in a family unit with love and security
II. To ensure that every that every expected and nursing mother maintain good health.
III. To ensure that every mother has a normal delivery and bears healthy children.
IV. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation.

a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III, IV

38. Based on the DOH program, a mother should have at least how many prenatal visits during preqnancy?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 12

39. A standard prenatal physical examination per visit should be performed. Which of the following is not included in the routine examination?

a. BP .
b. Height
c. Lymph nodes
d. conjunctive of the eyes

40. In goiter endemic areas, all pregnant women shall be given one iodized oil capsule every:
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 3 months
d. 4 months

41. In the care of "high risk" pregnant women, "tagging" the prenatal record means:

a. Placing a name tag around patients wrist.
b. Assigning the mother under "high risk" group
c. Writing the letters "HR" in red ink against the entry in the prenatal register
d. Writing the name of the patient in red ink in the prenatal register

42. In areas where licensed heath personnel are not available, who shall be trained to regular prenatal visits using the Home Based mother's Record to identify danger signs:

a. Midwife
b. Trained hilots
c. Rural Health Nurse
d. Barangay officials

43. The following are qualified for

I. full term
II. more than 4 pregnancies
III. Adequate pelvis
IV. Cephalic presentation

a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II IV

44. A home delivery hit should contain a complete set of gadgets needed during delivery. Which of the following is optional?

a. suction bulk
b. boiled razor blade
c. pair of scissors
d. clean towel

45. This provide a valuable index for evaluation of the newborn infant’s condition at birth:

a. APGAR score
b. Muscle tone
c. Respiratory effort
d. Heart rate

46.The major cause of maternal deaths is:
a. prolonged labors
b. exhaustion
c. hemorrhage
d. infection

47. When giving a nursing care to a mother after delivery, the following should be checked, except:

a. uterus is contracted and hard
b. BP, and pulse rate is normal
c. Placenta must be complately expelled
d. Milk production is adequate

48. Which of the following are risk factors for pregnancy?

I. age-under 18 y.o.
ll. height-less than 145 cm tall
lII. 4th pregnancy
IV. History of previous caesarian section
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III, IV

49. Any abnormally detected during physical examination of the newborn should be reported to the physician. This should include:

a. head circumference 34 cm
b. weight- 2,350 cms
c. chest circumference- 33 cm
d. length – 49.5 cm

50. This law requires compulsory immunization against hepatitis B for infants and children below eight (8) years old.

a. P.D. 996
b. RA 7846
c. Presidential Proclamation No. 1066
d. P.D. 651

51. Which of the following immunization can be given any time after birth?

a. BCG
b. DPT
c. OPV
d. Measles

52. When assessing a 3 month old infant . Which of the following will you expect to find?

I. Smiles spontaneously
II. Rotate the head from side to side
III. Sits without support
IV. briefly holds toy in hand

a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, IV

53.The following are strategies used for the attainment of goals of the DOH Dental health program, except:

a. Social mobilization
b. Networking with other services
c. Monitoring feedback
d. Home visits

54. This project will be a continuous solicitation of donation for new kiddie toothbrushes:

a. 2 year care program,
b. Orientation Training on Comprehensive dental health program
c. "Sang Milyong Sipilyo Project"
d. Dental Health Services Clinic

55. A mother together with her 3 year old daughter came to the Dental Health clinic for check up. Which of the following is not one of the direct services offered by the Dental Health Program.

a. Dental curative Program
b. Oral Habilitation and Rehabilitation Program
c. Training Program
d. Dental Preventive Program

56. When assessing a.neonate a few hours after birth, the nurse notes an edematous area over the pariental are that does not cross the sagittal suture line, This is most likely indiates

a. caput succedaneum
b. cranlosyntostosis
c. cranlotables
d. cephalhematoma

57. Mrs. P. has finished feeding her 5-day old neonate but is having difficulty burping him. Which instructions should the nnurse give her?

a. "Give him water and hold him on his side"
b. "Hold him upright against your shoulder and pat his back"
c. Give his pacifier and hold im face down"
d. Hold him with his head slightly elevated and rub his stomach"

58. Which is the most reliable early indicator of neonated infection?

a. An elevated temperature
b. A change in feeding pattern
c. A palpable mass
d. Excessive mucos

59. When bathing a newborn, the nurse should be especially careful to:

a. Avoid cleaning his umbilical cord stump
b. Immerse him in warm water only
c. Wash his scalp every day
d. Keep him warm

60 A mother asks the nurse about scheduling her daughter for routine immunizations. At which age should her baby receive her initial dose of the diptheria - pertussis - tetanus vaccine?

a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 4 months
d. 6 months

61. A decrease in the baseline FHR may be caused by all of the following factors except:

a. Fetal sleep
b. Fetal hypoxia
c. Maternal drug administration
d. Maternal fever

62. Which assessment findng is not a contraindication for using tocolytic agent to manage preterm labor?

a. Active vaginal bleeding
b. fetal distress
c. Cervical dilatation of 2 to 3 cm
d. Cervical dilatation of 4 to 5 cm

63. Which assesement finding indicates hypoglycemia in a neonate?

a. Tremors
b. Projectile vomiting
c. Diarrhea
d. jaundice

64. Which adverse effect may occur in a patient receiving bromocriptine mesylate (parlodel) to prevent postpartal lactation?

a. Hypotension
b. Tachycardia
c. Bradycardia
d. Breast engorgement

65. Mrs Bugna, a 25 year old has missed 2 menstrual periods and is making her initial visit to the antepartal clicnic. Her last mentrual period began on June 3. Using the nagele's rule, the nurse would calculate her expected date of delivery as:

a. April 3
b. March 24
c. March 10
d. February 24

(Questions to 66 to 72 refer to this situaltion)

Situation: Mrs Og gravida 2 para 1 is accompanied to the labor and delivery are by her husband. Both have attended lamaze classes. Initial assessment reveals cervical dilation of 5 cm. Cervical assessment 80% station, -3; duration of contractions, 40 to 50 seconds; frequency of contractions 5 to 8 minutes; membranes ruptured spontaneousely 1 hour before admission; presentation vertex and possition left occiput anterior (LOA). Mrs Og, is connected to an external fetal monitor;

66. Based on the initial assessment findings, the fetal presenting part is:

a. At the level of the pelvic inlet
b. At the level of the ischial spines
c. 1 cm below the iscial spines
d. At the perineum

67. The fetal heart rate should be most audible in which dominant quadrant?

a. Left upper quadrant
b. Left lower quadrant
c. Right upper quadrant
d. Right lower quadrant

68.The LOA position means that the:

a. Lie is longitudinal and the fetal occiput is directed toward the left posterior portion of the maternal pelvis
b. Lie is transverse and the fetal mentum is directed toward the left posterior portion of the maternal pelvis
c. Lie is longitudinal and the fetal occiput is directed toward the left anterior portion of the maternal pelvis.
d. Lie is oblique and the fetal anterior fontanel is directed toward the left posterior portion of the maternal pelvis

69. Which assessment finding would necessitate bedrest for Mrs. Og?

a. 5cm cervical dilation
b. 80% cervical effacement
c. Contractions every 5 to 8 minutes
d. 3 station

70. The fetal monitor strip shows an FHR deceleration occurring during the increment of the contraction, reaching its lowest point at the acme of the contraction, and returning to the baseline during the decrement of the contraction. This type of deceleration:

a. indicates fetal distress
b. Is caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
c. Indicates fetal vagal nerve stimulation
d. is caused by umbilical cord compression

71.When should the nurse assess Mrs. Og's blood pressure?

a. During the Increment of a contraction
b. Between contractions
c. During the decrement of a contraction
d. During the acme of a contraction

72.Which factor would be most helpful in assessing the adequacy of placentas perfusion in Mrs Og?

a. The duration and intensity of her contractions
b. Her ability to cope with the discomfort of labor
c. The duration of the rest phases between contractions
d. The effectiveness of her breathing techniques during a contraction

73. A nurse is demonstrating cord care to a mother of a neonate. Which actions would the nurse teach the mother to perform?

I. Keep the diaper below the cord
II. Tug gently on the cord as it begins to dry
III. Only sponge bath the infant until the cord fails off
IV. Apply antibiotic ointment to the cord twice daily

a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, IV
d. II, III

74. A nurse is caring for a 3-year-old with viral meningitis. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find during the initial assessment?

a. Bulging anterior fontanel, fever, nuchal rigidity
b. Fever, nuchal rigidity, petechiae
c. Hypothermia, photophobia, irritability
d. Fever, nuchal rigidity, photophobia

75.The nurse teaches that the most frequent side effect associated with the use of IUDs is:

a. ectopic pregnancy
b. Expulsion of the IUD
c. Rupture of the uterus
d. Excessive menstrual flow

76.A client seeking advice about contraception asks the nurse about an IUD. The nurse explains that the IUD provides contraception by:

a. Blocking the cervical os
b. Increasing the mobility of the uterus
c. Preventing the sperm from reaching the vagina
d. IUDs interfere with either fertilization or implantation. Promoting contraception

77. A diagnostic test used to evaluate the fertility is the post coital test. It is best timed:

a. 1 week after ovulation
b. Immediately after menses
c. Just before the next menstrual period
d. With in 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation

78. One of the most common causes of hypotonic uterine dystocia is:

a. Twin gestation
b. Maternal anemia
c. Pelvic contracture
d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

79. The safest position for the woman in labor when the nurse notes a prolapsed cord is:

a. Prone
b. Fowlers
c. Lithotomy
d. Trendeirnburg

80. A birth hazard associated with breech delivery may be:

a. Abruptio placenta
b. Cephalhematoma
c. Pathologic jaundice
d. Compression of the cord

81 .The nurse reaches the client that gonorrhea is highly infectious and:

a. is easily cured
b. Occurs very rarely
c. Can produce sterility
d. Is limited to the external genitalia

82. When the client is diagnosed as having gonorrhea, the nurse should expect the physician to order:

a. Colistin
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Actinomycin
d. Chloramphenicol

83. The nurse understands that the organism that causes a trichomonal infection is a:

a. Yeast
b. Fungus
c. Protozoan
d. Spirochete

84. Tile oral drug that is most likely to be prescribed for treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis is:

a. Penicillin
b. Gentian violet
c. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
d. Metronidazole (Flagyl)

85. Acute salpingitis is most commonly the result of:

a. Syphilis
b. Abortion
c. Gonorrhea
d. Dydatidiform mole

86. Syphilis is not considered contagious in the:

a. Tertiary stage
b. Primary stage
c. incubation stage
d. Secondary stage

87. When teaching a client about the drug therapy for gonorrhea, the nurse should state that it:

a. Cures the Infection
b. Prevents complications
c. Controls its transmission
d. Reverses pathologic changes

88. With cancer of the prostate, it is possible to follow the course of the disease by , monitoring the serum level of:

a. Creatinine
b. Blood urea nitrogen
c. Non protein nitrogen
d. Prostate specific antigen

89. A client is diagnosed with herpes genitalis. To prevent cross contammiation, the nurse should:

a. Institute droplet precautions
b. Arrange transfer to a private room
c. Wear a gown and gloves when giving direct care
d. Close the door and wear a mask when in the room

90. A nurse should be aware that benign prostatic hypertrophy:

a. is a congenital abnormality
b. Usually becomes malignant
c. Predispose to hydronephrosis
d. Causes an eievated acid phosphatase

91. A 4-year-old has a seizure disorder and has been taking phenytoin(Dilantin) for 3 years. An important nursing measure for the child would be to:

a. Offer the urinal frequently
b. Check for pupilary reaction
c. Observe for flushing of the face
d. Administer scrupulous oral hygiene

92. In terms of preventive teaching for the parents of a 1-year-old, the nurse would speak to them about:

a. Accidents
b. Toilet training
c. Adequate nutrition
d. Sexual development

93. The best choice for between meal nourishment for a preschool-age child with a urinary infection would be:

a. Skim milk
b. Fresh fruit
c. Hard candy
d. Creamed soup

94.When performing a physical assessment of a newborn with Down Syndrome, the
nurse should carefully evaluate the infant's:

a. Heart sounds
b. Anterior fontanel
c. Pupillary reaction
d. Lower extremities

95. If monocular strabismus in children is not corrected early enough:

a. Dyslexia will develop
b. Peripheral vision will disappear
c. Amblyopia develops in the weak eye
d. Vision in both eyes will be diminished

96. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving:

a. Insulin
b. Steroids
c. Antibiotics
d. Anticonvulsant

97. A viral Infection characterized by a red blotchy rash and Koplik's spots in the mouth is:

a. Mumps
b. Rubella
c. Rubeola
d. Chickenpox

98.The major influence of eating habits of the early school-aged child is:

a. Availabilitv of food selections
b. Smell and appearance of food
c. Example of parents at meal time
d. Food preferences of the peer group

99. Nursing care for an infant after the surgical repair of a cleft lip should include:

a. Keeping the baby NPO
b. Keeping the infant from crying
c. Placing the infant in a semi-sitting position
d. Spoon feeding for the first 2 days after surgery

100. When teaching the parents of an infant diagnosed with PKU, the nurse should plan to include the fact that:

a. Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated
b. Treatment for PKU includes life long medications
c. PKU is transmitted by an autosomal dominant gene
d. The infant is tested for PKU immediately after delivery



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