The setup: my character makes a suit of armor with armor spikes, and enchants those spikes as +1 Called armor spikes, and keeps the suit in his possession for 24 hours. He then sets down the suit, walks 50' away, and Calls the armor spikes. What happens next? Does the whole suit teleport to the character? Just the spikes, leaving the rest of the suit behind with holes where the spikes used to be? Something else?

This appears to be a case the designers simply never thought of, leaving it up to a DM ruling, but if there is a RAW answer somewhere, or at least a developer comment somewhere that clarifies the RAI, I'd like some help in finding it.

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The armor remains behind in a strictly RAW reading.

Armor Spikes: You can have spikes added to your armor, which allow you to deal extra piercing damage (see “spiked armor” on Table: Weapons) on a successful grapple attack. The spikes count as a martial weapon. If you are not proficient with them, you take a –4 penalty on grapple checks when you try to use them. You can also make a regular melee attack (or off-hand attack) with the spikes, and they count as a light weapon in this case. (You can't also make an attack with armor spikes if you have already made an attack with another off-hand weapon, and vice versa.) An enhancement bonus to a suit of armor does not improve the spikes' effectiveness, but the spikes can be made into magic weapons in their own right.

This originates from the core rulebook and suggests that the armor and armor spikes are considered two different objects for magical enchantment, one being a martial weapon and the other being the armor itself. As the Called ability only returns a weapon to the owner (and is not listed as a possible armor enchantment), it suggests that the armor spikes and only the armor spikes are teleported.

Ultimately the caller ends up holding the armor spikes when they call the armor as a result.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ So I didn't miss anything. Was really hoping the answer would be, well, pretty much anything other than this, but this does appear to be correct. Thank you. \$\endgroup\$ – Matthew Najmon Sep 28 '14 at 0:55

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