



Are they sufficiently different to be considered a distinct civilization?

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    – yannis
    Jan 18 '13 at 14:30
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    – T.E.D.
    Jan 18 '13 at 14:35
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    – yannis
    Jan 18 '13 at 14:41
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    @YannisRizos - the point is that "civilization" is not really defined precisely enough to be able to answer with an unambiguous "yes" and "no". Your own answer is a great answer to "What were the differences and similarities", but doesn't contain unequivocal "yes/no" proof, because it just can't be done
    – DVK
    Jan 18 '13 at 16:55



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    – astabada
    Jan 18 '13 at 15:26

First we need to put some things in the right order. Dido was said to be the founder of Carthage. But history records little of her (most of which are said to be Myths)

Trying to get your answer, I think it is necessary we know how the small land given to Dido became an empire. Was it through the Natives, or she called for Phoenicians to be her new citizens?

The former can easily point out the reason for the distinctions, while the latter will partially prove the relationships.

One should also remember that Phoenicians travelled to Carthage after the defeat of Alexander, (a point raised in some contents of this Forum) which means after three centuries of Carthage being an empire and five centuries from the era of Dido.

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