[Free] 2018(June) Ensurepass CompTIA RC0-C02 Dumps with VCE and PDF 151-160

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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Recertification Exam for Continuing Education

Question No: 151 – (Topic 3)

An accountant at a small business is trying to understand the value of a server to determine if the business can afford to buy another server for DR. The risk manager only provided the accountant with the SLE of $24,000, ARO of 20% and the exposure factor of 25%. Which of the following is the correct asset value calculated by the accountant?

A. $4,800 B. $24,000 C. $96,000 D. $120,000

Answer: C Explanation:

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE


Thus if SLE = $ 24,000 and EF = 25% then the Asset value is SLE/EF = $ 96,000

References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment

Question No: 152 – (Topic 3)

A large company is preparing to merge with a smaller company. The smaller company has been very profitable, but the smaller company’s main applications were created in-house. Which of the following actions should the large company’s security administrator take in preparation for the merger?

  1. A review of the mitigations implemented from the most recent audit findings of the smaller company should be performed.

  2. An ROI calculation should be performed to determine which company#39;s application should be used.

  3. A security assessment should be performed to establish the risks of integration or co- existence.

  4. A regression test should be performed on the in-house software to determine security risks associated with the software.

Answer: C Explanation:

With any merger regardless of the monetary benefit there is always security risks and prior to the merger the security administrator should assess the security risks to as to mitigate these.

Question No: 153 – (Topic 3)


11:16:22.110343 IP gt; UDP, length 1400

11:16:22.110351 IP gt; UDP, length 1400

11:16:22.110358 IP gt; UDP, length 1400

11:16:22.110402 IP gt; UDP, length 1400

11:16:22.110406 IP gt; UDP, length 1400






Answer: A Explanation:


Question No: 154 – (Topic 3)



  1. 92.24 percent

  2. 98.06 percent

  3. 98.34 percent

  4. 99.72 percent

Answer: B Explanation:





Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley amp; Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 43, 116

Question No: 155 – (Topic 3)

A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?

  1. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.

  2. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.

  3. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.

  4. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.

Answer: A Explanation:

Security posture refers to the overall security plan from planning through to implementation and comprises technical and non-technical policies, procedures and controls to protect from both internal and external threats. From a security standpoint, one of the first questions that must be answered in improving the overall security posture of an organization is to identify where data resides. All the advances that were made by technology make this very difficult. The best way then to improve your company’s security posture is to first survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.

Question No: 156 – (Topic 3)


the finance department. The following information is compiled:

Caller 1, IP, NETMASK

Caller 2, IP, NETMASK

Caller 3, IP, NETMASK


A packet capture shows the following:




09:08:10.937590 IP gt; ICMP echo request, id 2305, seq 1,

length 65534

09:08:10.937591 IP gt; ICMP echo request, id 2306, seq 2,

length 65534

09:08:10.937592 IP gt; ICMP echo request, id 2307, seq 3,

length 65534

Which of the following is occurring on the network?

  1. A man-in-the-middle attack is underway on the network.

  2. An ARP flood attack is targeting at the router.

  3. The default gateway is being spoofed on the network.

  4. A denial of service attack is targeting at the router.

Answer: D Explanation:


Question No: 157 – (Topic 3)

Due to compliance regulations, a company requires a yearly penetration test. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has asked that it be done under a black box methodology.

Which of the following would be the advantage of conducting this kind of penetration test?

  1. The risk of unplanned server outages is reduced.

  2. Using documentation provided to them, the pen-test organization can quickly determine areas to focus on.

  3. The results will show an in-depth view of the network and should help pin-point areas of internal weakness.

  4. The results should reflect what attackers may be able to learn about the company.

Answer: D Explanation:

A black box penetration test is usually done when you do not have access to the code, much the same like an outsider/attacker. This is then the best way to run a penetration test that will also reflect what an attacker/outsider can learn about the company. A black box test simulates an outsiders attack.

Question No: 158 – (Topic 3)

A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?

  1. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.

  2. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.

  3. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.

  4. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.

Answer: D Explanation:

Security controls can never be run 100% effective and is mainly observed as a risk mitigation strategy thus the gaps should be explained to all stakeholders and managed accordingly.

Question No: 159 – (Topic 3)

The following has been discovered in an internally developed application:






  1. Static code analysis

  2. Memory dumping

  3. Manual code review

  4. Application sandboxing

  5. Penetration testing

  6. Black box testing

Answer: A,C Explanation:

A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new network based software product in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization.

Application code review – whether manual or static will reveal the type of security weakness as shown in the exhibit.

Question No: 160 – (Topic 3)





A. -$30,000 B. $120,000 C. $150,000 D. $180,000

Answer: A Explanation:

Return on investment = Net profit / Investment where:Net profit = gross profit expenses.




References: http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html

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