Given the statement 'Prior to 1986, the United States had been a net creditor because its holdings of foreign assets exceeded foreign holdings of U.S. assets.', is 'The US was a net creditor before 1986 because of its foreign asset holdings.' neither a logical follow-up nor a contradiction?
Prior to 1986, the United States had been a net creditor because its holdings of foreign assets exceeded foreign holdings of U.S. assets.###The US was a net creditor before 1986 because of its foreign asset holdings.