Given the statement 'In the first instance, IRS would have no record of time before the person could get through to an agent and of discouraged callers.', is 'There is no recording of the time for callers.' neither a logical follow-up nor a contradiction?
In the first instance, IRS would have no record of time before the person could get through to an agent and of discouraged callers.###There is no recording of the time for callers.