With the premise 'Since Slurvian thus exists in both a Germanic language (English) and a Romance language (French), must it not therefore follow that Slurvian has its origin in the common ancestor of both tongues, that is in the Indo-stage?', is 'Slurvian exists in the Germanic and Romance languages.' a reasonable conclusion?
Since Slurvian thus exists in both a Germanic language (English) and a Romance language (French), must it not therefore follow that Slurvian has its origin in the common ancestor of both tongues, that is in the Indo-stage?###Slurvian exists in the Germanic and Romance languages.