From 'Hence, the term isogloss , from iso - `same' + gloss `word,' to describe the line on a map where the terms are of equal distribution.', can we infer that 'An isogloss has nothing to do with maps. ' follows logically?
Hence, the term isogloss , from iso - `same' + gloss `word,' to describe the line on a map where the terms are of equal distribution.###An isogloss has nothing to do with maps. 