With the premise 'Recently in Chambers I came across the adjective perjink , a Scots word given also in Collins , but not in any of the other desk dictionaries I  it means   finical. ', is 'The origins of the Scottish adjective perjink can be traced back to medieval Scotland.' a reasonable conclusion?
Recently in Chambers I came across the adjective perjink , a Scots word given also in Collins , but not in any of the other desk dictionaries I  it means   finical. ###The origins of the Scottish adjective perjink can be traced back to medieval Scotland.