Does 'Since Slurvian thus exists in both a Germanic language (English) and a Romance language (French), must it not therefore follow that Slurvian has its origin in the common ancestor of both tongues, that is in the Indo-stage?' serve to directly refute the premise presented in 'Slurvian was originated by German ancestors.'
Since Slurvian thus exists in both a Germanic language (English) and a Romance language (French), must it not therefore follow that Slurvian has its origin in the common ancestor of both tongues, that is in the Indo-stage?###Slurvian was originated by German ancestors.