Given the assertion 'But my main object in choosing the passage was to illustrate the way in which Shakespeare could move from the literal to the metaphorical or metaphysical in his use of a legal term.', does 'Shakespeare is a timeless and magnificent writer. ' offer a contrary position?
But my main object in choosing the passage was to illustrate the way in which Shakespeare could move from the literal to the metaphorical or metaphysical in his use of a legal term.###Shakespeare is a timeless and magnificent writer. 