Starting from 'Since Slurvian thus exists in both a Germanic language (English) and a Romance language (French), must it not therefore follow that Slurvian has its origin in the common ancestor of both tongues, that is in the Indo-stage?', does it naturally lead to the conclusion 'The most common Slurvian spoke is in Africa'
Since Slurvian thus exists in both a Germanic language (English) and a Romance language (French), must it not therefore follow that Slurvian has its origin in the common ancestor of both tongues, that is in the Indo-stage?###The most common Slurvian spoke is in Africa