Given 'Decline in total expenditure (income) elasticity of demand from 0.36 to 0.25 over same period.', can 'This decline in elasticity of demand is due to changes in trends in the market.' be seen as maintaining a distinct, neutral position?
Decline in total expenditure (income) elasticity of demand from 0.36 to 0.25 over same period.###This decline in elasticity of demand is due to changes in trends in the market.