Given the statement 'Woolf identified but did not describe  a woman's sentence  and, in the same text, wrote of women ancestors (for example, Shakespeare's putative sister) who was silent, silenced by a society dominated by men.', is 'Shakespeare wrote about women's dominance in human society.' neither a logical follow-up nor a contradiction?
Woolf identified but did not describe  a woman's sentence  and, in the same text, wrote of women ancestors (for example, Shakespeare's putative sister) who was silent, silenced by a society dominated by men.###Shakespeare wrote about women's dominance in human society.