Is there no direct logical correlation between 'For example, Webster's Ninth New Collegiate Dictionary (1986) defines a man-about-town as a  wordly and socially active man. ' and 'Webster's has never defined man-about-town.', indicating neutrality?
For example, Webster's Ninth New Collegiate Dictionary (1986) defines a man-about-town as a  wordly and socially active man. ###Webster's has never defined man-about-town.