Is there no direct logical correlation between 'It is important, too, to note that writing systems are  for instance, Polish is written (today) using the Roman alphabet, but Russian, a related Slavic language, uses the Cyrillic; Yiddish, a Germanic language, is written in Hebrew characters; Latin, Greek, and Sanskrit, which resemble one another rather closely in some respects, all use different alphabets; and early examples, utterly unrecognizable to untrained readers of modern languages, were written in cuneiform, quite suitable for writing on soft clay tablets with a pointed stylus, and hieroglyphics.' and 'Every language has exactly the same writing system', indicating neutrality?
It is important, too, to note that writing systems are  for instance, Polish is written (today) using the Roman alphabet, but Russian, a related Slavic language, uses the Cyrillic; Yiddish, a Germanic language, is written in Hebrew characters; Latin, Greek, and Sanskrit, which resemble one another rather closely in some respects, all use different alphabets; and early examples, utterly unrecognizable to untrained readers of modern languages, were written in cuneiform, quite suitable for writing on soft clay tablets with a pointed stylus, and hieroglyphics.###Every language has exactly the same writing system