Intranasal fluticasone propionate. A review of its pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties, and therapeutic potential in allergic rhinitis.

Fluticasone propionate is a potent topical anti-inflammatory corticosteroid with low systemic activity. Available pharmacodynamic data are only preliminary; however, large placebo- and drug-controlled clinical studies involving almost 4000 patients with seasonal allergic rhinitis and 1500 with perennial allergic and nonallergic rhinitis have confirmed the efficacy of intranasal fluticasone propionate in the control of nasal symptoms. Fluticasone propionate generally demonstrated similar efficacy compared with intranasal beclomethasone dipropionate, flunisolide acetonide and oral astemizole and better or a trend towards better efficacy compared with oral loratadine, terfenadine, cetirizine and intranasal sodium cromoglycate (cromolyn sodium) against nasal symptoms. The incidence of adverse effects in association with intranasal fluticasone propionate appears to be comparable to that observed with placebo; the most frequently reported effects are nasal dryness/burning, epistaxis and headache. Consistent with its minimal systemic availability, intranasal fluticasone propionate in a dosage of up to 4 mg/day does not cause adrenal suppression. Thus, based on early data from large clinical trials, fluticasone propionate administered once daily offers an effective and convenient treatment option in patients with seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis, and is distinguished by its low oral bioavailability.


Sumatriptan. A review of its pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties, and therapeutic efficacy in the acute treatment of migraine and cluster headache.

Sumatriptan is a serotonin1 (5-HT1) receptor agonist, which is effective in the acute treatment of migraine headache. Its antimigraine activity is believed to derive from selective vasoconstriction of cranial blood vessels which are dilated and distended during migraine headache and/or from inhibition of neurogenically mediated inflammation in the dura mater. In placebo-controlled comparative studies, sumatriptan reduced migraine headache from 'moderate or severe' to 'mild or none' within 2 hours in 50 to 73% of patients following oral administration of 100 or 200 mg, and within 1 hour in 70 to 80% of patients following subcutaneous doses of 6 to 8 mg or intranasal doses 20 mg into each nostril. In addition, sumatriptan alleviated the accompanying symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and photophobia/phonophobia more effectively than placebo, and permitted higher percentages of patients to resume normal daily activities. Sumatriptan 100 mg orally was more effective in the acute treatment of migraine than oral combination therapy consisting of ergotamine 2 mg plus caffeine 200 mg or aspirin 900 mg plus metoclopramide 10 mg. Pooled data from nearly 5000 patients treated with either oral or subcutaneous sumatriptan in clinical trials indicate that it is well tolerated. However, migraine recurrence within 24 or 48 hours of initial symptom resolution developed in approximately 40% of patients treated with sumatriptan, irrespective of route of administration. It is likely that migraine recurrence is related to the short half-life of the drug (approximately 2 hours). Future studies should attempt to ascertain whether additional doses of sumatriptan will help prevent migraine recurrence in patients with attacks of long duration and if so, should determine the optimum interval between dosages. In conclusion, sumatriptan is an important addition to the range of drugs currently available for acute treatment of migraine. It provides rapid relief from debilitating symptoms in a high percentage of patients, particularly after subcutaneous administration. At this stage in its development a number of questions remain to be answered - most notably whether repeat doses will help prevent recurrent attacks and which patients are most likely to respond to therapy. Nevertheless, sumatriptan presently offers a combination of efficacy and tolerability that is unique in this particular clinical setting.


Secondary hypertension. An overview of its causes and management.

Primarily hypervolaemic, high output forms of hypertension, with features indicating or strongly suggesting fluid overload as the cause of elevated cardiac output, resulting from renal disease with reduced glomerular filtration rate causing sodium retention, renal tubular causes of sodium retention, greatly excessive sodium intake and low renin hypertension, can be treated by reduction of sodium intake and potentiation of its excretion by diuretic therapy, removal of the cause (e.g. aldosteronoma), and calcium antagonists. Excessive vasoconstriction resulting from noradrenaline (norepinephrine) in neurogenic hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, orthostatic hypertension and alpha-adrenergic drug administration; angiotensin excess due to renal ischaemia brought about by aortic coarctation, renal arterial and arteriolar stenosis, intraluminal obstruction, external renal compression, renin-producing tumours, intrinsic kidney diseases and excessive renin substrate; and vascular structural disorders such as atherosclerosis, arteriolitides and fibrosis with or without calcification of major arteries may also induce hypertension. Secondary hypertension of uncertain mechanism may occur in hyperparathyroidism, hyper-or hypothyroidism, or acromegaly. All are best treated by appropriate correction of the endocrine excess or deficiency. It may also occur in pregnancy, where the mechanism may involve prostaglandin-thromboxane imbalance or calcium deficiency; calcium deficiency with some evidence of benefit from calcium supplements; and the recumbent hypertension paradoxically associated with autonomic failure. Excellent responses to specific correction of the underlying cause or pathogenetic mechanism is usual in young individuals but less frequent in older patients.


Appetite suppressants. A review.

Centrally acting appetite suppressant drugs used in the treatment of obesity fall into 2 broad pharmacological categories; those which act via brain catecholamine pathways and those which act via serotonin pathways. Of the former group, amphetamine and phenmetrazine are no longer recommended because of their stimulant properties and addictive potential. The remaining drugs in this class include amfepramone (diethylpropion), phentermine, mazindol and phenylpropanolamine. All have been shown to reduce appetite and lower food intake, thereby helping obese patients more easily keep to a low-calorie diet and lose weight. They all have some sympathomimetic and stimulant properties. Anorectic drugs which promote serotonin neurotransmission have no such stimulant or sympathomimetic properties. They are fenfluramine, together with its recently introduced dextrorotatory stereoisomer dexfenfluramine, and fluoxetine. They reduce appetite and food intake and are effective in the treatment of obesity. Anorectic drugs should be reserved for those who are clinically at risk from being overweight, and then only as part of a comprehensive weight-reducing programme including regular dietary counselling. Although current licensing regulations only allow their use over a relatively short period (12 to 16 weeks), clinical trials have shown them to be effective over longer periods, particularly in preventing weight regain. Of the compounds currently indicated for use in obesity, dexfenfluramine appears to have the most suitable pharmacological profile, although it should not be given to patients with a history of depression. When used appropriately, appetite suppressants can be of real therapeutic benefit, and pose little risk.


The high-risk unstable angina patient. An approach to treatment.

Unstable angina, an intermediate stage in acute coronary ischaemic syndromes, accounts for about 50% of all admissions to the coronary care units in the United States today. It may progress to myocardial infarction in 15% of cases in the first 2 days, and the in-hospital mortality rate is 5%. The pathological hallmark of this syndrome, confirmed by angioscopy, is fissure of the atherosclerotic plaque within the coronary artery, leading to platelet adhesion and aggregation and fibrin-platelet thrombus formation, which may accelerate progression of the stenotic lesion. Management of unstable angina is aimed at ameliorating symptoms and reducing ischaemia, improving ventricular function, preventing recurrent ischaemia, myocardial infarction and death, and lastly, containing progression of the underlying coronary artery disease. Acute management includes bedrest, aspirin, heparin, nitroglycerin (glyceryl trinitrate) infusion and beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers in selected cases. After the patient is clinically stabilised, provocative tests and angiography may be performed, to be followed by angioplasty or bypass surgery, if necessary. In cases that are refractory to optimal medical therapy, interventions should be performed on a more emergent basis. Long term management includes aspirin and beta-blockers, if there is prior infarction, and control of the conventional risk factors.


Pharmacological management of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.

The goals of pharmacotherapy in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) are to suppress chronic synovitis which causes potential cartilage destruction and deformities, to control the systemic effects of inflammation (including growth retardation and nutritional deficits), relieve pain and limit psychological impact of disease. Currently available methods include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin, salicylates, naproxen, tolmetin, ibuprofen and indomethacin; disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) such as oral and injectable gold salts, hydroxychloroquine, penicillamine, oral and injectable methotrexate, and sulfasalazine; oral (daily or on alternate days), intravenous pulse or intra-articular corticosteroids; immunosuppresants, including cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, cyclosporin, and azathioprine; and gammaglobulin and other experimental therapies. Over the past 10 years, rheumatologists have adopted more aggressive pharmacological treatment of JRA. As time progresses and the safety of certain drugs such as methotrexate and sulfasalazine becomes clearer, wider and earlier use of these agents can be expected. Still the approach to treatment is a 'step by step' one, starting with the classical NSAIDs and ending with the DMARDs as needed.


Management of neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia and prevention of kernicterus.

Hyperbilirubinaemia remains one of the most common and more important pathological conditions in the newborn. The possibility that the so-called physiological or developmental hyperbilirubinaemia, with relatively low levels of serum bilirubin, could be responsible for bilirubin encephalopathy in the small premature infant is of great concern to the neonatologist; premature newborns are prone to developing hyperbilirubinaemia. Current methodologies for suppressing severe neonatal jaundice include: (a) attempts to stimulate liver conjugating enzymes using drugs such as phenobarbital; (b) attempts to degrade bilirubin with phototherapy; and (c) exchange transfusion. It is too soon to consider tin-protoporphyrin as a drug for the prevention and treatment of neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia. However, if it can be shown that tin-protoporphyrin can serve as a safe and less costly alternate treatment, a considerable improvement in the management of neonatal jaundice would be achieved.


Oxcarbazepine. A review of its pharmacology and therapeutic potential in epilepsy, trigeminal neuralgia and affective disorders.

Oxcarbazepine is the 10-keto analogue of carbamazepine but has a distinct pharmacokinetic profile. In contrast to the oxidative metabolism of carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine is rapidly reduced to its active metabolite, 10,11-dihydro-10-hydroxy-carbamazepine. With the possible exception of the P450IIIA isozyme of the cytochrome P450 family, neither oxcarbazepine nor its monohydroxy derivative induce hepatic oxidative metabolism. Direct comparison of oxcarbazepine and carbamazepine has shown no difference in efficacy between these 2 agents in terms of reducing seizure frequency in patients with partial epilepsy with or without secondary generalisation, or with tonic-clonic seizures. Substitution of oxcarbazepine for carbamazepine in multiple antiepileptic drug regimens improved seizure control in some patients with refractory epilepsy; however, the rise in serum concentrations of concurrent antiepileptic agents secondary to elimination of carbamazepine-associated hepatic enzyme induction may have also played a role. Substitution of oxcarbazepine for carbamazepine was associated with improved cognition and alertness in some patients with epilepsy. Limited data indicate that oxcarbazepine may be a useful alternative to carbamazepine in the management of trigeminal neuralgia. Experience in patients with acute mania is promising, but the value of oxcarbazepine in managing affective disorders, particularly as a prophylactic agent, is not established. Oxcarbazepine may be better tolerated than carbamazepine; however, the current published database is small and the potential for oxcarbazepine to induce the type of serious idiosyncratic reactions occasionally associated with carbamazepine is unknown. Hyponatraemia has been reported in patients treated with oxcarbazepine. Although apparently asymptomatic, fluid restriction may be deemed necessary in some patients to reduce the risk of precipitating seizures secondary to low serum sodium. Thus, oxcarbazepine appears to be an effective substitute for carbamazepine in those patients intolerant of this agent, or experiencing significant drug interactions. Wider clinical experience should help clarify the long term efficacy and tolerability of oxcarbazepine. Pharmacokinetic advantages over current antiepileptic drugs, carbamazepine in particular, may then favour oxcarbazepine for consideration as a first-line agent in the management of partial and tonic-clonic epilepsy.


Insulin and insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) stimulate production of IGF-binding proteins by ovarian granulosa cells.

Ligand blot analysis of granulosa cell (GC)-conditioned culture medium revealed several easily measurable insulin-like growth factor (IGF)-binding proteins (IGFBPs), including IGFBP-3 [40-44 kilodaltons (kDa)] and IGFBP-2 (34 kDa). In the present study, IGF-I, in a dose-dependent manner, significantly stimulated the production of these IGFBPs. Insulin, but not IGF-II, mimicked IGF-I's action on IGFBP-3 and -2 production, but was less potent. The synthetic IGF, long R3-IGF-I, which has very low affinity for IGFBPs and only slightly reduced affinity for the IGF-I (type I) receptor, had significantly greater potency in stimulating IGFBP-3 and -2 production compared to IGF-I. Des-(1-3)-IGF-I had similar effects. IGF-I, IGF-II, and the IGF-I analogs, but not insulin, also induced production of an unidentified 30-kDa IGFBP not normally detectable in these cultures. However, in the presence of epidermal growth factor (which was without independent effect on the 30-kDa IGFBP), insulin also induced this 30-kDa IGFBP. By Northern analysis the expression of IGFBP-3 mRNA was found to be significantly stimulated by IGF-I. In summary, insulin stimulated IGFBP-3 and -2 production in a manner that mimics that of IGF-I and the more potent long R3-IGF-I. However, its low potency suggested that IGFBP production is regulated via the IGF-I (type I) receptor. The much higher potency of long R3-IGF-I compared to that of IGF-I suggests that the IGFBPs themselves modulate the action of IGFs by sequestering exogenous IGFs. Thus, one cellular response to IGF stimulation is the production of IGFBPs, which, in turn, reduce or negate the biological activity of the IGFs. The effects of insulin-like peptides are exerted at least in part by increasing levels of mRNA for specific BPs.


Regulation of insulin-like growth factor binding protein-3 messenger ribonucleic acid expression by insulin-like growth factor I.

Insulin-like growth factor binding protein-3 (IGFBP-3) is an important modulator of the anabolic and mitogenic actions of the insulin-like growth factor (IGF) peptides. Previous studies have shown that the IGFs themselves can elevate levels of IGFBP-3 in vivo and in vitro. However, the regulatory mechanisms responsible for IGF-induced increases in IGFBP-3 are unclear. In this study we examined the expression of messenger RNA (mRNA) encoding IGFBP-3 in cultured bovine and human fibroblasts, two cell lines that secrete IGFBP-3 under IGF-I control. Northern analysis of bovine fibroblast RNA hybridized with a specific bovine IGFBP-3 complementary DNA probe indicated a single 2.8-kilobase (kb) transcript readily detectable within 2 h in IGF-I- or insulin-treated, but not in untreated, cells. IGFBP-3 mRNA abundance was maximal around 6 h, and remained elevated after 24 h of treatment. Secreted IGFBP-3 protein appeared more slowly. By Western ligand blotting, IGFBP-3 was not detected in medium from bovine fibroblasts incubated with IGF-I for 2, 4, or 6h, but was apparent after 24 h IGF-I treatment. Induction of IGFBP-3 mRNA was blocked when RNA synthesis was inhibited by actinomycin D. Furthermore, IGFBP-3 mRNA and protein was induced by different IGF-I analogs in direct relation to the ability of the peptides to bind to the type I IGF receptor, indicating a receptor-mediated process. GH had no effect on IGFBP-3 mRNA or protein levels in these cells. In contrast to its effect in bovine fibroblasts, IGF-I had no significant effect on steady state levels of IGFBP-3 mRNA in cultured human fibroblasts. A human IGFBP-3 complementary DNA probe hybridized to a single 2.8-kilobase mRNA species abundant in normal and SV40-transformed human fibroblasts under all culture conditions, and IGFBP-3 protein was secreted by these cells in the absence of exogenous stimuli. In human fibroblast cultures, IGF-I rapidly increased levels of IGFBP-3 in the medium without influencing transcript levels. Steady state levels of induced or constitutively expressed IGFBP-3 mRNA did not change significantly after 6h in the presence of actinomycin D, even though general RNA synthesis was inhibited more than 98%. These data demonstrate that expression of mRNA encoding IGFBP-3 is differentially controlled by IGF-I in bovine and human fibroblasts. Whereas cultured human fibroblasts may be suitable to study posttranscriptional regulation of IGFBP-3 availability, cultured bovine fibroblasts may provide a useful model system to probe the molecular mechanisms of IGFBP-3 gene expression and regulation by IGF-I.


Iloprost. A review of its pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic properties, and therapeutic potential in peripheral vascular disease, myocardial ischaemia and extracorporeal circulation procedures.

Iloprost is an analogue of epoprostenol (prostacyclin; PGI2; a potent but short-lived prostanoid mainly produced in the vascular endothelium) and mimics the pharmacodynamic properties of this compound, namely: inhibition of platelet aggregation, vasodilatation and, as yet ill-defined, cytoprotection. Improved metabolic and, in particular, chemical stability enhance the clinical utility of iloprost. When administered as an intermittent intravenous infusion at less than or equal to 2 ng/kg/min for 2 to 4 weeks, iloprost reduced rest pain and improved ulcer healing in 40 to 60% of patients with critical leg ischaemia, including diabetic patients, and delayed amputation in the majority of responding individuals. Similar benefits have been seen in thromboangiitis obliterans and, in patients with severe Raynaud's phenomenon, shorter courses of therapy reduced the frequency, intensity and duration of ischaemic episodes for at least 6 weeks. The very few comparative trials reported to date (i.e. vs nifedipine in Raynaud's phenomenon; vs low-dose aspirin in thromboangiitis obliterans) have favoured iloprost, but comparisons with more established agents are needed to assess this drug's value in less severe forms of peripheral ischaemia, such as intermittent claudication. At present, iloprost is administered intravenously and this is a limitation to treatment. The potent, rapidly reversible antiplatelet activity of iloprost suits it for use in extracorporeal circulation and for the intraoperative management of heparin-induced platelet activation. Although results in animal models of ischaemic myocardial injury are encouraging, preliminary clinical experience in patients with myocardial ischaemia or infarction has been disappointing. Most patients tolerate iloprost infusion rates of up to 2 ng/kg/min. Headache and flushing are extremely common and are the suggested end-point of dose titration, as higher doses are associated with a significant incidence of gastrointestinal distress and, ultimately, hypotension. Thus, iloprost provides a pharmacotherapeutic option for patients with severe peripheral vascular disease, a condition for which few alternative drug therapies exist. Its potent but short-lived effects make it well-suited to certain therapeutic niches such as the management of intraoperative platelet activation. Prostanoid analogues have far-reaching therapeutic potential and further experience with iloprost will no doubt help to define its clinical applications.


Effect of in vivo administration of recombinant acidic fibroblast growth factor on thyroid function in the rat: induction of colloid goiter.

We have recently demonstrated that the iv administration of 0.6-60 micrograms/kg.day of acidic fibroblast growth factor (acidic FGF) increases thyroid weight in male and female rats. Interestingly, measurement of serum TSH and thyroid hormones in rats treated with 6 micrograms/kg.day acidic FGF for 30 days revealed only a slight increase in serum T4 and reverse T3 concentrations. Since thyroid function was only examined 24 h after the 30th daily treatment, we performed a series of experiments to evaluate the effects of acidic FGF on thyroid function following single and 6 multiple injections of acidic FGF. There was a small increase in the serum TSH concentrations at 2, 4, 8, and 24 h after a single high dose iv injection of acidic FGF (60 micrograms/kg). In contrast, serum T3 concentrations were slightly decreased at 2, 4, and 8 h after acidic FGF administration. There was no effect of a single injection of acidic FGF on serum T4, reverse T3, or thyroglobulin concentrations. After 6 days of treatment, there was a 34% increase in the thyroid weights of rats treated with acidic FGF. Analysis of serum hormones revealed a slight increase in serum TSH, T3, and T4 concentrations in acidic FGF-treated rats, but no change in serum reverse T3 or thyroglobulin concentrations. There was no effect of acidic FGF administration on thyroid radioiodine uptake, the intrathyroidal metabolism of radioiodine, or the relative amounts of thyroidal thyroglobulin or peroxidase messenger RNAs, or on liver 5'-deiodinase activity. In hypophysectomized rats, with no detectable levels of serum TSH, acidic FGF failed to increase thyroid weight. These data suggest that FGFs may participate with TSH in the regulation of thyroid weight and colloid accumulation, and that autocrine or paracrine growth factors may be involved in the pathogenesis of colloid goiter.


Cyclic adenosine 3',5'-monophosphate increases beta-adrenergic receptor concentration in cultured human fetal lung explants and type II cells.

cAMP regulates the maturation of many biochemical processes that occur during normal lung development, including the changing levels of surfactant proteins and phospholipids. We examined the effect of cAMP on the beta-adrenergic receptor concentration in the developing human lung. Isobutylmethylxanthine, a cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitor, increased both the tissue cAMP content and beta-adrenergic receptor concentration in treated explants above those in untreated explants. 8-Bromo-cAMP treatment also elevated the beta-adrenergic receptor concentration of lung explants compared to that in untreated controls. These data indicate the ability of elevated cAMP to increase the beta-adrenergic receptor concentration. Both lung cAMP and beta-adrenergic receptor concentrations increase spontaneously in culture. To test for a possible causal relationship, we cultured explants with protein kinase inhibitors. We found that H-8, a preferential inhibitor of the cAMP-dependent protein kinase [protein kinase-A (PKA)], but not H-7, which inhibits PKA and protein kinase-C with similar potency, blocked the spontaneous rise in beta-adrenergic receptor concentration in human fetal lung explants, indicating that PKA activity is required for this rise in beta-adrenergic receptor concentration. Type II cells isolated from cultured lung treated with H-8 had fewer beta-adrenergic receptors than cells isolated from untreated explants. These studies show that cAMP increases the beta-adrenergic receptor concentration in human fetal lung and specifically in type II cells through a PKA-dependent mechanism, consistent with a role for cAMP in beta-adrenergic receptor regulation during normal lung development.


Substance P stimulates luteinizing hormone secretion from anterior pituitary cells in culture.

Substance P (SP) is present in the anterior pituitary gland (AP), and its concentration there is regulated by the hormonal status of the animal. The observation that SP is releasable from hemipituitaries in a K(+)-stimulated, Ca(2+)-dependent manner and the demonstration of SP-binding sites in the AP have led to the suggestion that SP participates in a paracrine or autocrine manner in the regulation of AP function. Contradictory reports of the effects of SP on the secretion of AP hormones, particularly LH, led us to address the question of whether SP can act directly on the AP to effect LH secretion. We found that SP (100 nM) can stimulate LH release (300-400% of control values) in short term cultures of AP cells and that this effect varies as a function of the age and sex of the animal. There was no significant effect of SP on the release of LH from AP cells of male and female prepubertal rats (20-30 days). During the peripubertal period (30-35 days), a sharp increase in the response to SP occurred in both sexes. This responsiveness was dose dependent and persisted at all ages studied in AP cells from the female rat. In contrast, the responsiveness of AP cells from male rats that developed during the peripubertal period diminished during maturation and was absent after 60 days of age. When adult female rats were exposed to androgens for 6 weeks in vivo and tested for the ability of SP to stimulate the LH secretion, the response was significantly diminished. These studies support the speculation that SP has a functional role in the secretion of LH.


Competition for binding to insulin-like growth factor (IGF) binding protein-2, 3, 4, and 5 by the IGFs and IGF analogs.

The insulin-like growth factors (IGF) I and II bind to IGF binding proteins (BP) with high affinity. The affinity of each of the IGFs for individual BPs and the regions of the IGF-I molecule that are required for this high affinity binding have been defined only for IGFBP-1 and IGFBP-3. The present studies have determined the affinity of several IGF analogs (prepared using in vitro mutagenesis) for pure IGFBP-2, 3, 4, and 5. The results show IGFBP-2 binds these analogs in a manner similar to IGFBP-1. For example, a mutation in the A chain region (positions 49, 50, 51) or B chain (positions 3, 4) results in greater than 20-fold reduction in affinity for either IGFBP-1 or 2. In contrast, mutations in the A chain region have minimal effect on binding to IGFBP-3, whereas substitutions at the 3, 4, 15, 16 positions of the B chain reduce IGF-I affinity by at least 50-fold. At pH 7.4, binding of the analogs to IGFBP-4 is less affected by substitutions at the B chain 3, 4 positions compared to IGFBP-1, 2, and 3, but IGFBP-4 affinity for analogs containing the A chain substitutions is greatly reduced similarly to IGFBP-1 and 2. Binding to IGFBP-5 is greatly reduced by either A or B chain substitutions and most of the mutations result in greater than 100-fold reduction in affinity. Acidic pH 6.0 was associated with increased affinity of IGFBP-4 for the A chain containing mutants. The results indicate that only IGFBP-1 and 2 have nearly identical affinity for each of these analogs, whereas IGFBP-3, 4, and 5 have similarities and significant differences. The findings suggest that different binding proteins have differential structural requirements for optimal IGF-I binding.


Steroidogenic enzyme expression in porcine conceptuses during and after elongation.

The following studies were performed to investigate levels of expression of steroidogenic enzymes in porcine conceptuses between days 12 and 21 postmating and to correlate these findings with estrogen levels in conceptus tissues. In the first experiment, levels of steroidogenic enzymes in individual day 12 blastocysts were examined by Western immunoblot analyses. In a second experiment, Northern blot, slot blot, and Western immunoblot analyses for 17 alpha-hydroxylase cytochrome P450 (P450(17) alpha) were performed on conceptus tissue pooled for each uterine horn of sows on days 12, 14, 16, and 21 postmating. On day 12, P450(17) alpha) protein was detectable in 6-mm blastocysts, with highest levels apparent in 10- to 15-mm (tubular) blastocysts. Filamentous blastocysts appeared to have less P450(17) alpha) protein than did littermate tubular blastocysts. Side-chain cleavage cytochrome P450 (P450scc) and aromatase cytochrome P450 (P450arom) followed a pattern similar to that of P450(17) alpha. 3 beta-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase was undetectable by Western analysis in blastocysts at the stages examined, but was detectable in placenta from fetuses at later stages of gestation. In pooled tissue, P450(17) alpha) protein and mRNA were greater in day 12 conceptuses than in conceptuses from all other days. However, transition from the tubular to the filamentous form on day 12 postmating was associated with a dramatic decline in the level of P450(17) alpha) mRNA. The conceptus 17 beta-estradiol concentration was highly correlated with immunoreactive P450(17) alpha) protein and hybridizable P450(17) alpha) mRNA over days 12, 14, 16, and 21 postmating. These data suggest that the decrease in blastocyst estrogen secretion occurring after the time of elongation in porcine conceptuses may be due to a decrease in P450(17) alpha expression.


In vitro evidence for modulation of morphological and functional development of hypothalamic immunoreactive atrial natriuretic peptide neurons by cyclic 3',5'-adenosine monophosphate.

In the hypothalamus of the rat, the precursor of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is produced and processed into its smaller congeners of 3K mol wt species, which are secreted from neurons with cell bodies in the periventricular areas and the paraventricular nuclei of the tissue. Employing long term monolayer cultures of neonatal rat hypothalamic cells, we have identified a small population of cells that stained positive for immunoreactive (ir) ANP. Seventy-two +/- 7% (mean +/- SE; n = 4 per 1000 cells) of the irANP positive cells were colocalized with the staining of neuron-specific enolase; some of the cells possessed multiple neurites and showed irANP staining in the perikarya, in the varicosities along neuronal processes, and at the terminals of long neurites. Over the range of 10(-6)-10(-4) M, forskolin, 3-isobutyl-1-methylxanthine, or 8-bromo-cAMP significantly augmented the total number of irANP-positive cells and those possessing neurites in a dose-related and time-dependent manner. At 10(-4) M, 4 days of forskolin treatment increased the number of irANP-positive neurons 4-fold (P less than 0.01) while tripling that of the cells with long neurites (P less than 0.01). Furthermore, it approximately tripled the number of cells (P less than 0.01) showing positive signals for pro-ANP mRNA, as ascertained by colorimetric in situ hybridization using a 30-basepair antisense oligonucleotide probe labeled with digoxigenin. Consistent with the above observation, forskolin, 3-isobutyl-1-methylxanthine, or 8-bromo-cAMP treatment significantly augmented the total amount of irANP present in the cultures, with an ED50 of forskolin approximating 5 x 10(-5) M. Although treatment with 10(-7) M phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate approximately doubled the production of irANP in the cultures (P less than 0.05), phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate had little effect on modulating the number or neurite outgrowth of irANP neurons. Thus, our present findings suggest that protein kinase-A pathways are of greater importance than protein kinase-C pathways in regulating both the functional and morphological development of ANP-producing neurons during the ontogenesis of the rat hypothalamus.


Gonadotropin-releasing hormone-induced calcium signaling in clonal pituitary gonadotrophs.

In agonist-stimulated clonal pituitary gonadotrophs (alpha T3-1 cells), cytoplasmic calcium ([Ca2+]i) exhibited rapid and prominent peak increases, followed by lower, but sustained, elevations for up to 15 min. The [Ca2+]i response to GnRH was rapidly inhibited by prior addition of a potent GnRH antagonist. In the absence of extracellular Ca2+ the initial peak [Ca2+]i response was only slightly decreased, but the prolonged increase in [Ca2+]i was abolished, indicating that the peak is derived largely from intracellular calcium mobilization and the sustained phase from Ca2+ influx. Application of the endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase blocker thapsigargin caused progressive and dose-dependent elevation of [Ca2+]i and decreased the peak amplitude of the GnRH-induced Ca2+ response. On the other hand, addition of dihydropyridine calcium channel antagonists before or after GnRH treatment prevented or terminated the plateau phase, respectively, consistent with entry of Ca2+ through L-type voltage-sensitive Ca2+ channels (VSCC) as the major Ca2+ influx pathway during GnRH action. The presence of L-type VSCC in alpha T3-1 cells was further indicated by the ability of elevated extracellular K+ levels and the dihydropyridine calcium channel agonist Bay K 8644 to elevate [Ca2+]i in an extracellular calcium-dependent manner. These actions of depolarization and Bay K 8644 were inhibited by nifedipine, with an IC50 of 10 nM. High extracellular K(+)- and GnRH-induced Ca2+ entry was also attenuated by phorbol esters and permeant diacylglycerols, indicating that protein kinase-C exerts inhibitory modulation of VSCC activity. In contrast to normal pituitary gonadotrophs, in which GnRH induces a frequency-modulated oscillatory [Ca2+]i response, single alpha T3-1 cells exhibited a nonoscillatory amplitude-modulated signal during agonist stimulation. The [Ca2+]i responses observed in alpha T3-1 gonadotrophs indicate that the immortalized cells retain functional GnRH receptors and their coupling to the Ca2+ signaling pathway. Ca2+ influx through L-type channels maintains the plateau phase of the [Ca2+]i response during agonist stimulation and is inhibited by activation of protein kinase-C.


Evidence that the FSH receptor itself is not a calcium channel.

FSH has been shown to stimulate the uptake of calcium in cultured rat Sertoli cells, resulting in an increase in cytosolic calcium concentrations. One possibility which has been put forth is that the FSH receptor per se may act as a calcium channel. This is all the more tantalizing given the proposed structure of this receptor which, like all other G protein-coupled receptors, is thought to have the putative transmembrane helices forming a bundle-like structure in the plasma membrane. To test whether the FSH receptor could function as a calcium channel, we performed whole-cell voltage clamp experiments on 293 and 293F(wt1) cells, which are a clonal line of 293 cells expressing high levels of rat FSH receptors. The 293 cells, which do not express FSH receptors, were found to lack any detectable inward calcium currents, and therefore, serve as an excellent model for transfecting with potential calcium conducting FSH receptors. When the 293F(wt1) cells were then tested, no inward calcium currents could be detected in either control or FSH-stimulated cells. These results suggest that the FSH receptor itself is not a calcium channel and, therefore, FSH must be stimulating endogenous calcium channels in rat Sertoli cell plasma membranes.


Opposite vectorial secretion of insulin-like growth factor I and its binding proteins by pig Sertoli cells cultured in the bicameral chamber system.

A two-chamber system has been employed to investigate the vectorial secretion of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) and its binding proteins (IGF-BPs) by pig Sertoli cells. The kinetics of transport of [3H]insulin as well as the transepithelial electrical resistance of filters coated with reconstituted basement membrane, in the absence of presence of Sertoli cells, indicated the formation of a functional barrier by Sertoli cells. The rates of diffusion of [125I]IGF-I or [125I]human CG were slower from the apical (AC) to the basal (BC) compartment than in the opposite direction. However, the IGF-I content and concentration in the BC was twice that seen in the AC. FSH increased the secretion of IGF-I in the BC, and therefore increased the BC/AC ratio. In contrast, most of the IGF-BPs, with apparent molecular sizes of 39-43, 34, 29 and 24 kDa, were secreted in the AC. FSH increased the secretion of IGF-BP 39-43 kDa (BP3). This is the first report of opposite vectorial secretion of IGF-I and its binding protein by any cell type.


pH dependence and exchange of high and low responder peptides binding to a class II MHC molecule.

We have compared the binding kinetics of two antigenic peptides to a soluble class II MHC molecule. One of the peptides provokes a strong T cell response and the other a much weaker one. Both show greatly increased (approximately 40-fold) association rates at pH 5 in comparison to neutral pH, consistent with the low pH environment of late endosomes being most conducive to class II MHC--peptide binding. Interestingly, the weak peptide has a much faster off-rate that is significantly increased at pH 5 and it can be entirely replaced in an exchange reaction by the stronger one. This suggests that one characteristic of immunodominant peptides is that of nearly irreversible binding, such that they will be strongly selected for in the course of class II MHC transit and recycling through endosomal compartments. Modelling the parameters of this peptide exchange also suggests that a large fraction of the GPI-chimeric MHC molecules used in this study are 'empty' with respect to endogenous peptides, or else occupied with extremely weak ones, consistent with their inability to load processed peptides intracellularly.


A mechanosensitive ion channel in Schizosaccharomyces pombe.

Protoplast protuberances (blebs) of Schizosaccharomyces pombe were examined using the patch-clamp technique. In addition to several voltage-gated ion channels, we encountered the activities of a mechanosensitive ion channel with a conductance of 180 pS. Microscopic currents of one or two units were observed in some excised patches and ensemble currents of several tens of units were observed in all blebs examined in whole-bleb configuration. This channel opens at pressures of cm Hg applied to whole blebs and it passes cations, including Ca2+. It is inactivated by membrane depolarizations and blocked by Gd3+. We discuss the possible functions of such a channel, including its activation upon cell cycle dependent cytoskeletal reorganizations.


Two different protein kinases act on a different time schedule as glial filament kinases during mitosis.

Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) is a component of glial filaments specific to astroglia. We now report the spatial and temporal distributions of four phosphorylated sites in the GFAP molecule during mitosis of astroglial cells, determined by antibodies which can distinguish phosphorylated epitopes from non-phosphorylated-epitopes. Immunofluorescence microscopy showed that the Ser8 residues in the entire cytoplasmic glial filament system are initially phosphorylated when the cells enter mitosis. In cytokinesis, the phosphoSer8 residues become dephosphorylated, whereas Thr7, Ser13 and Ser34 in glial filaments at the cleavage furrow become the preferred sites of phosphorylation. The cdc2 kinase purified from mitotic cells can phosphorylate GFAP at Ser8 but not at Thr7, Ser13 or Ser34, in vitro. These results suggest that cdc2 kinase acts as a glial filament kinase only at the G2-M phase transition while other glial filament kinases are probably activated at the cleavage furrow before final separation of the daughter cells.


Human papillomavirus E6 proteins bind p53 in vivo and abrogate p53-mediated repression of transcription.

The transforming proteins of DNA tumor viruses SV40, adenovirus and human papillomaviruses (HPV) bind the retinoblastoma and p53 cell cycle regulatory proteins. While the binding of SV40 large T antigen and the adenovirus E1B 55 kDa protein results in the stabilization of the p53 protein, the binding of HPV16 and 18 E6 results in enhanced degradation in vitro. To explore the effect of viral proteins on p53 stability in vivo, we have examined cell lines immortalized in tissue culture by HPV18 E6 and E7 or SV40 large T antigen, as well as cell lines derived from cervical neoplasias. The half-life of the p53 protein in non-transformed human foreskin keratinocytes in culture was found to be approximately 3 h while in cell lines immortalized by E6 and E7, p53 protein half-lives ranged from 2.8 h to less than 1 h. Since equivalent levels of E6 were found in these cells, the range in p53 levels observed was not a result of variability in amounts of E6. In keratinocyte lines immortalized by E7 alone, the p53 half-life was found to be similar to that in non-transformed cells; however, it decreased to approximately 1 h following supertransfection of an E6 gene. These observations are consistent with an interaction of E6 and p53 in vivo resulting in reductions in the stability of p53 ranging between 2- and 4-fold. We also observed that the expression of various TATA containing promoters was repressed in transient assays by co-transfection with plasmids expressing the wild-type p53 gene.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)


Three widely separated positions in the 16S RNA lie in or close to the ribosomal decoding region; a site-directed cross-linking study with mRNA analogues.

Synthetic mRNA analogues were prepared by T7 transcription, each containing several thio-uridine residues at selected positions. After binding to the ribosome in the presence of cognate tRNA, the thio-U residues were activated by UV irradiation and the resulting sites of cross-linking to 16S RNA analysed. Three distinct cross-links were consistently observed: (i) from position '+6' of the mRNA (the 3'-base of the A-site codon) to base 1052 of 16S RNA; (ii) from position '+7' of the mRNA to base 1395; and (iii) from '+11' to base 532. Individual yields of the cross-links were strongly dependent on the particular mRNA sequence in each case. The '+11/532' and '+6/1052' cross-links were always entirely tRNA-dependent, whereas the '+7/1395' cross-link was observed at lower intensity in the absence of tRNA. In the presence of a second (A-site bound) tRNA the +6/1052 cross-link was markedly reduced. A cross-link to the 1050 region was again observed when a message carrying a thio-U at position '+9' was translocated on the ribosome so as to bring the thio-U to position +6. Taken together, the data are incompatible with some current models both for the three-dimensional arrangement of 16S RNA and for the orientation of the tRNA-mRNA complex in the ribosome.


Co-ordinate expression of the two threonyl-tRNA synthetase genes in Bacillus subtilis: control by transcriptional antitermination involving a conserved regulatory sequence.

In Bacillus subtilis, two genes, thrS and thrZ, encode distinct threonyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes. Normally, only the thrS gene is expressed. Here we show that either gene, thrS or thrZ, is sufficient for normal cell growth and sporulation. Reducing the intracellular ThrS protein concentration induces thrZ expression in a dose-compensatory manner. Starvation for threonine simultaneously induces thrZ and stimulates thrS expression. The 5'-leader sequences of thrS and thrZ contain, respectively, one and three transcription terminators preceded by a conserved sequence. We show that this sequence is essential for the regulation of thrS via a transcriptional antitermination mechanism. We propose that both genes, thrS and thrZ, are regulated by the same mechanism such that the additional regulatory domains present before thrZ account for its non-expression. In contrast to Escherichia coli, structurally similar regulatory domains, i.e. the consensus sequence preceding a terminator structure, are found in the leader regions of most aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase genes of Gram-positive bacteria. This suggests that they are regulated by a common mechanism.


Poliovirus RNA recombination: mechanistic studies in the absence of selection.

Direct and quantitative detection of recombinant RNA molecules by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) provides a novel method for studying recombination in RNA viruses without selection for viable progeny. The parental poliovirus strains used in this study contained polymorphic marker loci approximately 600 bases apart; both exhibited wild-type growth characteristics. We established conditions under which the amount of PCR product was linearly proportional to the amount of input template, and the reproducibility was high. Recombinant progeny were predominantly homologous and arose at frequencies up to 2 x 10(-3). Recombination events increased in frequency throughout replication, indicating that there is no viral RNA sequestration or inhibition of recombination late in infection as proposed in earlier genetic studies. Previous studies have demonstrated that poliovirus recombination occurs by a copy-choice mechanism in which the viral polymerase switches templates during negative-strand synthesis. Varying the relative amount of input parental virus markedly altered reciprocal recombination frequencies. This, in conjunction with the kinetics data, indicated that acceptor template concentration is a determinant of template switching frequency. Since positive strands greatly outnumber negative strands throughout poliovirus infection, this would explain the bias toward recombination during negative-strand synthesis.


Comparison of acyltransferase-mediated mutagenicity and nucleic acid binding of N-acetoxy-4-acetylaminobiphenyl by hepatic and bladder microsomes from rats and dogs.

Acyltransferase-mediated mutagenic and metabolic activation of N-acetoxy-4-acetylaminobiphenyl (N-OAc-AABP) by hepatic tissues of rats and dogs were compared. N-OAc-AABP was mutagenic in Salmonella typhimurium TA98 even in the absence of exogenous enzyme(s). However, supplementation with hepatic microsomes from dogs showed a dose-dependent increase in mutagenicity of N-OAc-AABP, whereas under the same conditions, rat microsomes were inactive. Incubation of liver microsomes with RNA showed that 46.4 and 11.2 nmole of [3H]N-OAc-AABP were bound/mg RNA/mg protein with dogs and rats, respectively. The hepatic microsome-mediated binding and mutagenicities of N-OAc-AABP were blocked by paraoxon, suggesting the involvement of deacetylase(s) in the activation process. Analyses of the in vitro incubates of N-OAc-AABP with rat and dog liver microsomes revealed the O-deacetylation product N-hydroxy-4-acetylaminobiphenyl (N-OH-AABP) as the major metabolite. The ratios of O-deacetylation of N-O[14C]Ac-AABP versus N-deacetylation of N-OAc-[14C]AABP for hepatic microsomes from dogs and rats were 2.9 and 7.2, respectively. The O- and N-deacetylases are also distributed in bladder tissues and their activities in comparison to the hepatic tissues were lower and amounted to 14.2 and 5.0 nmoles (O/N-deacetylation ratio 2.8) for dogs and 14.8 and 1.7 nmoles per mg protein per min (O/N-ratio of 8.7) for rats. The microsomes from bladder tissues also catalyzed the binding of [3H]N-OAc-AABP to RNA and enhanced its mutagenic response in TA98, both of which were blocked by paraoxon. The occurrence of deacetylase(s) in the target tissues of the bladder carcinogen 4-acetylaminobiphenyl (AABP) suggests that metabolic activation of some of the proximate metabolites could occur within these target organs. Furthermore, since the O-deacetylation product N-OH-AABP is relatively innocuous compared to the N-deacetylation product N-acetoxy-4-aminobiphenyl, these results imply that the refractiveness of rats for 4-aminobiphenyl or AABP-induced bladder carcinogenesis might in part be associated with the higher ratios of microsomal O/N-deacetylase activities. Thus susceptibility to arylamine or arylacetamide-induced liver and bladder carcinogenesis might be influenced by the microsomal deacetylases.


MPM-12: a monoclonal antibody that predominantly stains mitotic cells and recognizes a protein kinase.

The monoclonal antibody MPM-12, raised by using partially purified extract of mitotic HeLa cells as the immunogen, preferentially stains the cytoplasm of mitotic cells by indirect immunofluorescence without exhibiting any species specificity. On immunoblots, MPM-12 recognizes three bands, of 155, 88, and 68 kDa, in mitotic HeLa cell extract but only the 68-kDa band in interphase cell extract. The 68-kDa band seems to be associated with chromatin while the other two are not. All three MPM-12 reactive peptides are phosphorylated, and the phosphorylation seems to be required for MPM-12 reactivity. The MPM-12 immunocomplexes exhibit autophosphorylating and histone H1 kinase activity.


Microinjection of IFA antibody induces intermediate filament aggregates in epithelial cell lines but perinuclear coils in fibroblast-like lines.

The murine monoclonal IFA antibody recognizes a conserved sequence present in almost all intermediate filament (IF) proteins. When IFA antibody was injected into 13 different primary or established cell lines, striking differences were detected between epithelial and fibroblastic cell lines. In epithelial cells keratin IFs were broken down within 4 h into numerous spheroid aggregates scattered throughout the cytoplasm. Keratin aggregates were first detected in the cytoplasmic periphery. In contrast, in fibroblastic cells, injection of IFA antibody led to the formation of perinuclear coils of vimentin. IFA antibody at a concentration of greater than 1 mg/ml had to be injected to initiate these transitions. When HeLa cells, which contain separate networks of vimentin and keratin filaments, were injected with IFA antibody, vimentin did not form perinuclear coils but was instead found together with keratin in aggregates. Electron micrographs of HeLa cells injected with IFA antibody showed that the aggregates have diameters between 0.5 and 2.6 microns and resembled the keratin aggregates observed in certain mitotic epithelial cells. Although the ultrastructural studies support an association of some aggregates with desmosomes, aggregates were, however, also induced by injection of IFA antibody into human keratinocytes in low calcium medium under conditions where desmosomes were not present.


A method for rapid screening of recombinant proteins for recognition by T lymphocytes.

A simple, cost-effective method is described that allows rapid screening of recombinant protein sequences for their ability to stimulate T cells. Individual microcultures of E. coli each expressing a gene product or peptide sequence fused to protein A are grown in 96-well plates. Following lysis of the bacteria, the fusion peptide is readily captured with immobilized immunoglobulin in tissue culture wells. No further purification is required. T lymphocytes plus appropriate antigen-presenting cells are added directly to the wells and assayed for proliferation. The DNA in bacteria from wells stimulating T cell proliferation is then sequenced. The technique allows rapid mapping of T cell epitopes by facilitating screening of truncation mutants without extensive purification. Described here is a further application of the technique to study monosubstituted analogues of a known T cell epitope.


Subjugation of dominant immunogenic determinants within a chimeric peptide.

The mechanism of immunodominance was investigated using chimeric peptides from mouse myelin basic protein consisting of the immunodominant I-Au-restricted Ac1-11, attached by a peptide bond to I-Eu-restricted 35-47. Our results indicate that this chimeric peptide and certain of its derivatives were excellent immunogens both in vitro and in vivo. Notably, on immunization with Ac1-11:35-47 or Ac1-11 (Ala4):35-47, the proliferative T cell responses to each of its component peptides were almost completely "subjugated" in favor of neo-determinants that are I-Eu restricted. Furthermore, each of 11 hybridomas derived after immunization with Ac1-11:35-47 had specificity for junctional neo-determinants and none could be stimulated to produce interleukin-2 from Ac1-11 or 35-47. Subjugation of the immunogenicity of the original determinants occurred regardless of their dominance when separate. It did not appear to result from non-availability of the original determinants because the chimeric peptide was able to induce neonatal tolerance to each of its constituents. These results indicate that in an overlapping multideterminant array, the dominant determinant is unpredictable from historical data about any of the components. Determinant choice, at any stage of processing, may be governed by competitive aspects of determinant capture in an environment where all components--antigen, major histocompatibility complex and T cell receptor--are available.


Adhesion molecule-mediated signals regulate major histocompatibility complex-unrestricted and CD3/T cell receptor-triggered cytotoxicity.

Appropriate experimental conditions were devised to demonstrate that CD58 (LFA-3), CD54 (ICAM-1) and CD11a/CD18 (LFA-1) adhesion molecules are the source of signals that regulate nonspecific major histocompatibility complex-unrestricted and CD3/T cell receptor (TcR)-triggered cytotoxicity. Using anti-LFA-3 monoclonal antibody (mAb)-treated, interleukin-2 (IL-2)-cultured peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBL) or cloned CD3+/CD8+ cells as lymphocyte-activated killer (LAK) effectors, and ligand (CD2)-negative tumor cell lines as targets, a down-regulation of CD3- and CD3+ cell-mediated LAK activity was consistently observed. Anti-LFA-3 mAb also down-regulated tumor cell lysis when T cell clones were triggered to kill P815 cells through stimulation of the CD3/TcR complex by an anti-CD3 mAb. The inhibitory effect of anti-LFA-3 mAb was not prevented by stimulatory anti-CD2 mAb. Anti-ICAM-1 mAb treatment of IL-2-cultured PBL consistently up-regulated LAK cytotoxicity against tumor target cells. However, this effect was only exerted on CD3- LAK effectors. Anti-LFA-1 mAb blocked conjugate formation between effector cells and tumor target cells, thus rendering this model unsuitable to evaluate the regulatory role of LFA-1. Therefore, a cytotoxicity model system was applied in which a hybrid anti-CD3/anti-human red blood cell (HuRBC) mAb triggers cytolytic T cells to lyse HuRBC. In these experiments, anti-LFA-1 mAb markedly up-regulated the lytic ability of IL-2-cultured PBL. We conclude that mAb against LFA-3, ICAM-1 and LFA-1 molecules deliver regulatory signals for LAK cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. As these stimuli may be delivered by ligands expressed on tumor targets as well as on other immune competent and inflammatory cells, the present observations are relevant in the context of both the host's immune response against tumors and the general functioning of the immune system.


Virus infection blocks the processing and presentation of exogenous antigen with the major histocompatibility complex class II molecules.

Helper T cell recognition of antigen requires that antigen be processed and presented by class II expressing antigen-presenting cells (APC). Many antigens presented by the immune system are part of infectious organisms, for example, bacteria and viruses, which themselves may affect APC function. Here we show that infection of B cell lines as APC with viruses of two different families, namely, influenza A or vaccinia, completely block processing and presentation of an exogenous globular protein antigen pigeon cytochrome c. The block appears to be primarily within the processing pathway, as virus infection has little effect on the presentation of an antigenic peptide of pigeon cytochrome c which does not require processing. It is likely that several steps in the processing pathway are affected. Only live infectious virus, not UV-inactivated virus blocks APC function, indicating that there is no competition of viral particles with cytochrome c for the class II processing machinery. As compared to uninfected cells, virus-infected cells internalize less antigen bound to surface Ig but degrade a similar portion of that which enters the cell. Virus infection results in reduced protein synthesis in APC which may also be a factor in decreasing APC function. Significantly, we show that the processing of a high affinity evolutionary variant of cytochrome c from Drosophila melanogaster is reduced less by virus infection as compared to c. Such knowledge may guide the selection of antigenic epitopes in vaccine design.


Identification of a source of biologically active CD40 ligand.

We have identified the murine thymoma line EL4 as a source of biologically active CD40 ligand. Using a biotin-labeled soluble CD40.Fc fusion protein, consisting of the extracellular domain of human CD40 and the Fc region of human IgG1, EL4 cells were subjected to repeated flow cytometric cell sorting to select for cells with enhanced biotinylated CD40.Fc binding. After nine rounds of sorting, the number of CD40.Fc binding sites/cell had risen from 450 on the unsorted parental EL4 cells to 15,000 on EL40.9 cells (EL4 cells sorted with biotinylated CD40.Fc for nine rounds). Scatchard analysis of radiolabeled CD40.Fc binding revealed that the surface-expressed CD40 ligand on parental EL4 and EL40.9 cells bound its receptor with a single class of high-affinity sites (Kd = 0.5 nM). Supernatant (SN) from the sorted EL40.9 cells was found to contain human and murine B cell stimulatory activity which could be removed by preclearing with immobilized CD40.Fc, confirming the presence of soluble CD40 ligand in the preparations. EL40.9 supernatant enhanced soluble CD23 (sCD23) release and induced IgE secretion from interleukin 4-stimulated human B cells. In addition, EL40.9 SN contained proliferative activity for anti-IgM-activated murine B cells which could be removed by treatment with immobilized CD40.Fc. However, the same SN had no demonstrable activity on the proliferation of human B cells. The results presented here describe, for the first time, a source of membrane-bound and soluble CD40 ligand. The soluble form of this murine ligand has activity on murine and human B cells and induces some of the functional responses predicted for the ligand based on the action of stimulatory antibodies directed against the human CD40 surface molecule.


T and B cell receptors discriminate major histocompatibility complex class II conformations influenced by the invariant chain.

Direct recognition of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules may occur when T cells are positively selected in the thymus and also during recognition of non-self MHC molecules. Since peptide recognition and binding of particular monoclonal antibodies is strongly influenced by the invariant chain (Ii) of the class II molecule, we have asked whether Ii also affects recognition of non-self MHC molecules by T cells. We find that Ii binding alters MHC class II conformation as detected by a monoclonal antibody, and that this alteration is retained in cell surface MHC class II molecules after Ii dissociates. This altered conformation also affects recognition by allogeneic T cells. Normal T cells and T cell clones preferentially recognize MHC class II molecules that have been associated with Ii, suggesting that thymic selection may be influenced by MHC conformation independently of specific peptide binding.


Processing and presentation of ovalbumin in mice genetically selected for antibody response.

Lines of mice selected for high or low antibody production to sheep red blood cells (H-I and L-I) were studied for their ability to process and present ovalbumin to a panel of 12 T-T hybridomas in two different H-2 haplotypes. When H-I and L-I spleen cells were used as antigen-presenting cells, no difference could be observed in the peptide generation by these mice compared to H-2-compatible B.10.Q and B.10.S spleen cells, respectively. Neither normal splenic L-I B-cells nor L-I thioglycolate-induced peritoneal macrophages were defective at presenting native ovalbumin, to six and eight different I-As-restricted T-T hybrids, respectively. Altogether, these results differ from previous findings which had indicated a deficiency in the processing and presentation of antigen by the low line, L-I.


Restricted alpha/beta receptor gene usage of idiotype-specific major histocompatibility complex-restricted T cells: selection for CDR3-related sequences.

We have sequenced the T cell receptor (TcR) V alpha and V beta genes of seven independent BALB/c CD4+ T cell clones specific for the immunoglobulin lambda 2 light chain produced by the MOPC 315 myeloma (lambda 2(315)). All the clones recognize a peptide of residues 91-101 of lambda 2(315) and are restricted by the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule I-E(d). The results indicate that in BALB/c mice, this anti-idiotypic response uses a very limited number of TcR. The four clones which cross-react between Phe94 and Tyr94 peptide analogues use very similar receptors (V alpha 3, J alpha 1, V beta 6, J beta 1.1). The V alpha 3 gene used by all of these clones is identical and has not been previously described. Although the four clones differ in nucleotide sequence in the V/J borders, two had identical receptors at the amino acid level. One of the cross-reactive clones exhibits a heteroclitic response to the Tyr94 peptide variant resulting from a single amino acid exchange in the V/J junction of the alpha chain. The three remaining clones which recognize only the Phe94 and not the Tyr94 peptide have somewhat more diverse TcR, however, two of these three clones use V beta 6. One of these non-crossreacting clones is alloreactive, the specificity of which can be attributed to differences in the N-D-J sequences. Taken together these data indicate that this T cell response to an immunoglobulin idiotope is very restricted in terms of the TcR used. These data in conjunction with recently published results indicate that, although there can be strong preference for individual V alpha or V beta gene segments, certain V alpha/V beta combinations are preferentially selected for interacting with a given peptide/MHC combination, and that the CDR3-related regions are crucial for antigen fine specificity and alloreactivity.


Inhibition of membrane currents and rises of intracellular Ca2+ in PC12 cells by CGS 9343B, a calmodulin inhibitor.

The calmodulin inhibitor 1,3-dihydro-1-[1-((4-methyl-4H,6H-pyrrolo[1,2-a]-[4,1]benzoxazepin - 4-yl)methyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2H-benzimidazol-2-one maleate (CGS 9343B) caused a reversible block of voltage-activated Ca2+, Na+, and K+ currents in differentiated rat pheochromocytoma (PC12) cells. The drug also inhibited nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR) channel currents but not inward currents evoked by extracellular ATP. Depolarization-induced intracellular Ca2+ transients were almost completely inhibited in growth cones and cell bodies by CGS 9343B. Our results suggest actions of CGS 9343B on ion fluxes unrelated to calmodulin inhibition.


Expression of alpha 6 beta 4 integrin increases during malignant conversion of mouse epidermal keratinocytes: association of beta 4 subunit to the cytokeratin fraction.

The expression of alpha 6 beta 4 integrin has been analyzed in several keratinocyte cell lines representative of various stages of mouse epidermal carcinogenesis. The immunological analyses carried out show that alpha 6 beta 4 is expressed at the cell surface of the cell lines which exhibit an epithelial or epithelioid morphology. The relative levels of alpha 6 beta 4 expressed at the cell surface increase noticeably from premalignant to malignant cells, as detected by fluorescence flow cytometry. This increase also correlates with the abundance of soluble beta 4 subunit detected by Western immunoblotting in the different cell lines. However, complete absence of alpha 6 beta 4 has been found in spindle carcinoma cells showing a fibroblast-like phenotype in culture. The integrin remains associated to detergent- and high salt-insoluble cytoskeletal components, organized in stable anchoring contacts, as in human keratinocytes (Carter et al., J. Cell Biol., 111, 3141, 1990). In addition, a significant fraction of the beta 4 subunit is detected associated to highly purified cytokeratin fractions. These results, together with those regarding the organization of both cellular components in drug-treated cells, support the existence of a close association between alpha 6 beta 4 and the intermediate filaments of the cytoskeleton.


Expression of microinjected DNA and RNA in early rabbit embryos: changes in permissiveness for expression and transcriptional selectivity.

Gene expression in rabbit early development was investigated by microinjecting LacZ DNA and LacZ RNA in 1-cell and 2-cell embryos. Expression of LacZ DNA could not be obtained before 30-36 hpf, although synthetic LacZ RNA was translated from 12 hpf at the least. The onset of expression of microinjected DNA correlated with the 8- to 16-cell stage. This suggests that before this stage, there is a general negative control of gene expression. The arrest of in vitro development at the 2- to 8-cell stages did not inhibit LacZ expression, which still occurred at 33 hpf. In addition the inhibition of the first cleavage by nocodazole resulted in LacZ expression in 1-cell embryos. Expression of microinjected DNA thus occurs at a fixed time after fertilization and is independent of cleavages and of the second and subsequent DNA replications. Therefore, the changes in permissiveness for the expression of microinjected DNA in rabbit embryos are reminiscent of those in mouse embryos. Transcriptional selectivity in rabbit embryos was compared to that in early mouse embryos. In both species, Sp1-sensitive promoters were active and the promoter of simian virus 40 did not require far upstream enhancers before late cleavage stages; genes driven by the -447, +563 region of murine leukemia virus were repressed. In rabbit, however, the H-2Kb promoter active in mouse was silent. Altogether, the results illustrate a remarkable conservation of the characteristics of the transcription in early rabbit and mouse embryos and the independence of its resumption from the pattern of cleavage.


E-cadherin expression during the acidic FGF-induced dispersion of a rat bladder carcinoma cell line.

Cell dissociation and acquisition of cell motility are major events in morphogenesis, wound repair, and cancer invasion and metastasis. We have used the NBT-II bladder carcinoma cell line as a model system to study the mechanisms of these events. Upon exposure to acidic fibroblast growth factor (aFGF), NBT-II cells undergo morphological changes that resemble those described in epithelial-mesenchymal transitions, i.e., dissociation of some or all polygonal epithelial cells and their transformation into motile, fibroblastic-like cells. The disruption of intercellular contacts, which accompanies cell dissociation and acquisition of motility, is correlated with a redistribution of E-cadherin, a Ca(2+)-dependent cell adhesion molecule, over the entire cell surface and within the cytoplasm. However, these modifications are not accompanied by a reduction of the intercellular adhesiveness or a loss of E-cadherin expression. Moreover, the formation of intercellular contacts between fibroblastic-like NBT-II cells results in the relocation of epithelial cadherin (E-cadherin) immunoreactivity on lateral membranes, but is not sufficient to abrogate cell motility. Finally, the overexpression of E-cadherin by NBT-II cells stably transfected with a plasmid containing the mouse E-cadherin cDNA does not impair the scattering effect of aFGF, indicating that high levels of E-cadherin expression do not prevent cells from disrupting their intercellular connections. Altogether, these results suggest that the scattering activity of aFGF is not mediated by direct modulations of E-cadherin expression.


Characterization of human umbilical vein endothelial cell lines produced by transfection with the early region of SV40.

Human umbilical vein endothelial cells were transfected by electroporation with the plasmid pSV3neo, containing the early region of simian virus 40. The resultant "cell lines" divide rapidly (population doubling time of 33 h) for up to 24 passages in medium supplemented with 5% (v/v) serum and 2.5 micrograms/ml endothelial cell growth supplement. Several of these lines express basal levels of ICAM-1 and MHC class I but not MHC class II. One cell line, designated SGHEC-7, retained a number of differentiated endothelial cell functions throughout its lifespan. These functions include increased production of tissue plasminogen activator in response to histamine, thrombin, and PMA. Stability of function and rapid growth over 24 passages endow these cells with a number of advantages over primary cultures. The homogeneous cell population and consistency of response make them ideal for biochemical and immunological studies hereto impractical with primary human endothelial cells. The success of this approach may allow the production of functional cell lines from other vascular beds.


Toxocara canis: monoclonal antibodies to carbohydrate epitopes of secreted (TES) antigens localize to different secretion-related structures in infective larvae.

The major secreted glycoproteins of Toxocara canis larvae appear to be derived from two specialized organs within the nematode organism. Using immunogold electron microscopy, we have analyzed the binding patterns of a panel of monoclonal antibodies (Tcn-1 to Tcn-8) reactive with Toxocara excretory-secretory (TES) antigens. We find, first, that the esophageal gland and lumen are strongly reactive with monoclonals Tcn-4, Tcn-5, and Tcn-8, and because the posterior portion of the gut is closed, we hypothesize that products of this gland are released through the oral aperture. Second, a distinct anti-TES antibody (Tcn-2) localizes solely to the midbody secretory column, which opens onto the cuticle at a secretory pore. Thus, the secretory apparatus is probably functional in this stage of parasite as an important source of TES products. Only one monoclonal, Tcn-7, can bind to both esophageal and secretory structures. In addition, another antibody, Tcn-3, binds both to the epicuticle and to a TES antigen, but our data do not directly determine whether antigens located in the cuticle are subsequently released. Thus there are at least two, and possibly three, independent sources of TES antigens within Toxocara larvae.


Neuropeptidergic innervation of intramuscular hemangiomas.

Intramuscular hemangiomas are idiopathic lesions which are either tumoral or developmental in origin. A close association of abnormal blood vessels with nerve fibers is found and may suggest that nerves have a primary inciting role in the development of these lesions. In the current study, the number of nerve fibers in different zones around the tumors, as well as the type of neuropeptides present in these fibers, was quantitatively assessed by computer-assisted image analysis of immunohistochemical staining of histological slides. The number of nerve fibers as determined by positive staining by anti-protein S-100 antibodies was found to be elevated in the immediate vicinity of the abnormal blood vessels. The density of the nerve fibers rapidly declined with increasing distance from the hemangiomas, reaching normal values at distances of over 2 mm. Furthermore, hemangiomas contain a significantly higher number of calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP), substance P, and Met-enkephalin-positive fibers. The most significant rise in number is that of CGRP-positive fibers. This neuropeptide is a known mitogen, which could be responsible for the growth of the hemangiomatous blood vessels. Substance P is a nociceptive neurotransmitter and its presence can explain the pain which often accompanies even tiny intramuscular hemangiomas.


Crossing three membranes. Channel formation by aerolysin.

Aerolysin is a channel-forming toxin responsible for the pathogenicity of Aeromonas hydrophila. It crosses the inner and outer membranes of the bacteria in separate steps and is released as a 52-kDa inactive protoxin which is activated by proteolytic removal of approximately 40 amino acids from the C terminus. The toxin binds to the erythrocyte transmembrane protein glycophorin and oligomerizes before inserting into the membrane, producing a voltage gated, anion selective channel about 1 nm in diameter. Remarkably, proaerolysin appears to be dimeric, whereas the oligomer is a heptamer. Using chemical modification and site-directed mutagenesis, we have identified some of the regions of the molecule which appear to be involved in secretion and in channel formation.


Effect of epidermal growth factor on insulin-like growth factor-I (IGF-I) and IGF-binding protein synthesis by adult rat hepatocytes.

Growth hormone has been established as a primary regulator of IGF-I gene expression in adults, not only in liver but also in many extrahepatic tissues. We considered the possibility that IGF-I production by adult rat liver could also be stimulated by epidermal growth factor (EGF), a peptide known to be involved in liver regeneration. Chromatographic analysis performed after acid treatment of conditioned media revealed the presence of both immunoreactive (IR) IGF-I and IGF binding protein (IGFBP). Both IR IGF-I and IGFBP were present in the conditioned medium of adult rat hepatocytes in basal conditions. The stimulation of IGF-I and IGFBP secretion by EGF appears to be dose-dependent with a significant increment already evident at 5 nM. That EGF stimulates secretion is supported by the finding that IGF-I and IGFBP-1 mRNA levels are increased after EGF supplementation. We conclude that adult rat hepatocytes spontaneously produce IGF-I and IGFBP, and that EGF is able to increase their synthesis and secretion. This non-growth hormone-dependent regulation of IGF-I and IGFBP-1 production by adult rat hepatocytes in culture indicates an important autocrine/paracrine role for IGF-I, particularly during liver regeneration after extensive organ mass loss.


Acute recruitment of prolactin-secreting cells is regulated posttranscriptionally.

17 beta-estradiol (E2) stimulates the release of an activity from neurointermediate lobe (NIL) cells which increases the relative abundance of prolactin (PRL) secretors in cultures of anterior pituitary (AP) cells. In the present study, we sought to determine whether this NIL/E2 effect was due to recruitment of growth hormone (GH)-releasing cells into the PRL-secreting population and to define the mechanism regulating this induction of PRL secretors. AP cells from ovariectomized rats were cultured overnight, exposed to NIL/E2 treatment (or medium alone) for 3 h and then subjected to reverse hemolytic plaque assays for PRL and GH release. We found that exposure to NIL/E2 increased by 10% the proportion of AP cells that secreted PRL but did not influence the overall abundance of cells that released GH. A more critical analysis of these cultures revealed that all of the newly recruited PRL-secreting cells also released GH. This increment in the proportion of cells that released both PRL and GH concurrently was accompanied by an equivalent decrease in the fraction that secreted GH alone. Thus, it appeared that NIL/E2 treatment initiated PRL secretion by cells that previously released only GH. We then tested whether this induction of PRL secretors required the synthesis of proteins and/or RNA. We found that the protein synthesis inhibitor cycloheximide completely abolished the recruitment of PRL-releasing cells by NIL/E2 treatment, whereas the RNA synthesis inhibitor actinomycin D had no effect on this response. We conclude that NIL/E2 treatment induces PRL secretion by cells that formerly released only GH and that this induction is regulated posttranscriptionally.


Chemotactic and mitogenic activities of granulosa cells in developing follicles.

Chemotactic and mitogenic activities of granulosa cells in developing follicles were studied. Immature rats were subcutaneously injected with 20 IU of pregnant mare's serum gonadotrophin and killed at various intervals after injection. The ovaries were removed and granulosa cells were isolated and cultured in a serum-free medium supplemented with insulin, transferrin and hydrocortisone. Chemotactic and mitogenic activities in the conditioned medium were determined. Our results demonstrated that in addition to mitogenic activity, chemotactic activity was also expressed in the conditioned medium of granulosa cells. Both activities increased with the maturity of follicles. A gel filtration analysis revealed that there were two peaks showing both mitogenic and chemotactic activities with a molecular size smaller than 5000. These peaks had various sensitivities to heat and trypsin treatment. In addition, the active component of both peaks was organic solvent-extractable. A thin-layer chromatography analysis indicated that the lipid component was not prostaglandin, estradiol or hydrocortisone.


Regulation of adenohypophyseal messenger RNAs in female rats by age, hypothyroidism, estradiol and neonatal androgenization.

Hormonal regulation of adenohypophyseal messenger ribonucleic acids (mRNAs) encoding preprotachykinin (PPT), prolactin (PRL) and thyrotropin beta subunit (TSH beta) was examined in juvenile and pubertal female rats. Hypothyroidism, initiated on day 2 (d2) or 22 (d22) of life, increased PPT and TSH beta mRNAs but decreased PRL mRNA 17 days later. Exogenous estradiol given for 3 days reduced PPT mRNA in pubertal (d38) but not juvenile (d18) euthyroid females; conversely, estradiol increased PRL mRNA on d18 but not d38. In hypothyroid females however, estradiol decreased PPT and TSH beta mRNAs at both ages and increased PRL mRNA in pubertal but not juvenile females. Thus, regulation of adenohypophyseal mRNAs by estradiol varies with age and thyroid status. In previous studies, adenohypophyseal tachykinins increased in male, but not female rats at puberty. This sex difference was not reproduced here by neonatal androgenization of females, suggesting that it is not mediated by hypothalamic sexual differentiation. However, PRL mRNA increased in androgenized females; this increase was prevented by ovariectomy, suggesting its medication by estradiol.


The multiple beta-tubulin genes of Xenopus: isolation and developmental expression of a germ-cell isotype beta-tubulin gene.

In this report, we demonstrate the presence of multiple beta-tubulin genes in Xenopus and begin to explore the regulation of isotypes within the beta-tubulin family by focusing on the characterization of a specific beta-tubulin cDNA derived from a Xenopus oocyte library. This clone (XLOT: Xenopus laevis oocyte beta-tubulin) contains the entire protein coding and 3'-untranslated regions of the gene, and is only missing approximately eleven nucleotides from the start of transcription. The XLOT transcript is ubiquitously expressed, but steady-state amounts are highest in immature oocytes and in testes. Consistent with the present understanding of this type of autoregulation, levels of oocyte beta-tubulin transcript vary in accordance with fluctuating polymeric/monomeric tubulin protein ratios both in the developing oocyte and as the late stage oocyte matures to an unfertilized egg. In addition, steady-state levels of the oocyte beta-tubulin transcript do not increase as the total number of cells per embryo increase during embryogenesis. Although one major and three minor transcriptional start sites are utilized in immature oocytes and adult tissues, usage of each individual site varies during oogenesis and embryogenesis. The preferential expression in germ cells indicate that the oocyte beta-tubulin transcript may provide a useful marker for gonadal differentiation in early amphibian development.


The expression of liver acute-phase protein genes during rat development and in response to inflammation of the dam.

The hepatic expression of albumin (Al) and plasma acute phase protein genes (APP) was examined during the development of rat liver and in response to inflammation of the dam. Throughout the 10- to 20-day gestation period the level of alpha 2-macroglobulin (alpha 2M) mRNA in fetal liver exceeded twice that of the adult liver. The concentrations of the other APP and Al mRNAs were 10-30% of those of the adult liver between days 10 and 13 of gestation, then increased to values which ranged from 40% for haptoglobin (Hp) to 80% for Al and alpha 1-acid glycoprotein (AGP) mRNAs on day 19 of gestation. The transition of fetuses to an extrauterine environment was followed by a temporary overexpression of the Hp gene and an increase of the fibrinogen (Fb), AGP and thiostatin (TST) mRNAs to adult levels. Fetal liver responded to inflammation of the mother by a transcriptional induction of all of the investigated APP genes, except for the Fb gene whose level of expression remained unchanged. The pattern of individual APP genes expression in maternal and fetal livers was similar and characteristic for the acute phase reaction.


Effects of several calcium channels modulators on the [3H]noradrenaline release and 45Ca influx in the rat vas deferens.

1. The effects of nifedipine (1 microM), CdCl2 (0.1 mM) and the Bay K 8644 enantiomers (1 microM) on [3H]noradrenaline release and 45Ca uptake in epididymal and prostatic rat vas deferens were investigated. 2. Nifedipine, CdCl2 and Bay K 8644 optical isomers did not affect the basal tritium release. However, the [3H]noradrenaline release evoked by high potassium (50 mM) from both portions of rat vas deferens was markedly inhibited by CdCl2, scarcely affected by nifedipine and not modified by Bay K 8644 enantiomers. 3. (-)-Bay K 8644 increased the basal and potassium (50 mM) induced 45Ca uptake whereas (+)-Bay K 8644, nifedipine and CdCl2 did not alter the basal 45Ca uptake. However, they strongly inhibited the uptake induced by potassium in both portions of rat vas deferens. 4. These results suggest that the calcium channels (mainly L type) are involved on the contractions in rat vas deferens epididymal and prostatic halves; these channels differ from those present in sympathetic nerve terminals (likely of N Type) which modulates the NA release. 5. This study also shows that Bay K 8644 optical isomers possess opposite effects on the L channels of bisected rat vas deferens smooth muscle.


Vasoconstrictive responses elicited by endothelin in bovine cerebral arteries.

1. Endothelin (ET-1) induced concentration-dependent contractions, which were slowly developed in segments of bovine cerebral arteries. Furthermore, this agent produced tachyphylaxis. 2. The contractions evoked by ET-1 were markedly reduced in Ca-free medium containing 1 mM EGTA and by the Ca channel antagonist, nifedipine (1 microM), but increased by the Ca channel agonist, BAY K 8644 (10 nM). 3. The contractions caused by ET-1 were significantly reduced by the protein kinase C (PKC) inhibitor, staurosporine (1 and 10 nM). 4. These results indicate that ET-1 induced potent vasoconstrictive responses, probably mediated by PKC activation, which were mainly dependent on extracellular Ca; this Ca enters the smooth muscle cells via dihydropyridine sensitive Ca channels.


[Isolation and analysis of brain-specific sequences from cDNA libraries for various segments of the human brain].

The cDNA libraries in gt10 were constructed from total poly(A)+RNA of human forebrain cortex, cerebellar cortex and medulla oblongata. We selected the clones which gave hybridization signal with brain cDNA only, or gave no signal from these libraries. Expression pattern and structure of two brain-specific clones Hfb1 from forebrain library and Hmob3 from medulla oblongata library were analyzed in detail. Hfb1 hybridized to two different transcripts (about 5 and 2 kb) from frontal cortex, but to a single (longest) from cerebellum. Hfb1 sequence includes 958 nucleotides. Comparison of Hfb1 with the Gene Bank revealed no homology with the sequences present in the Bank. At 3'-end there is poly(A) tail of 24 bases, there is the AATCAA sequence 55 nucleotides upstream which probably serves as a polyadenylation signal. However, AATCAA directs polyadenylation in vitro with very low efficiency. We found no open reading frame in the clone and this is in agreement with the data indicating that brain-specific RNAs has extremely long 3'-untranslated regions. Hmob3 was partially sequences. We compared its primary structure with the sequences from the Gene Bank and revealed no homology. Hmob3 expresses in different parts of human brain and in sceletal muscle but does not express in other tissues.


Detection of chronic hepatitis C virus infection by four diagnostic systems: first-generation and second-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay and nested polymerase chain reaction analysis.

Serum samples from 100 patients with non-A, non-B hepatitis-related chronic liver disease and 100 patients with hepatitis B-related chronic liver disease were tested by first-generation and second-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays, a second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay and the nested polymerase chain reaction. In non-A, non-B hepatitis-related chronic liver disease, second-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (anti-c22 and/or c200) and second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay showed 98% positivity, whereas first-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (anti-c100-3) showed 89% positivity. The two second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay-negative samples were positive by nested polymerase chain reaction, but one second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay-positive sample was polymerase chain reaction negative. However, when this second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay-positive sample was tested by polymerase chain reaction using another set of primers, it was polymerase chain reaction positive. Therefore, 100% of the non-A, non-B hepatitis-related chronic liver disease serum samples were hepatitis C virus RNA positive by polymerase chain reaction. Nine hepatitis B-related chronic liver disease samples were first-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay positive. Of the eight second-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay-positive hepatitis B-related chronic liver disease samples, six were first-generation enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay positive and five were second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay positive and polymerase chain reaction positive. One indeterminate second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay sample was polymerase chain reaction negative. Therefore, second-generation recombinant immunoblot assay appears to be as useful as polymerase chain reaction for detecting a chronic hepatitis C virus infection, although some discrepancies were noted.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)


Immunohistochemical detection of hepatitis C virus-infected hepatocytes in chronic liver disease with monoclonal antibodies to core, envelope and NS3 regions of the hepatitis C virus genome.

The localization of hepatitis C virus-infected hepatocytes in the human liver remains unclear despite the development of a serological assay for the antibody to hepatitis C virus. We studied their localization immunohistochemically with monoclonal antibodies to core, envelope and NS3 antigens of hepatitis C virus. We examined 48 liver biopsy samples from C100-3 antibody-positive patients with chronic liver disease (chronic persistent hepatitis, 5 cases; chronic active hepatitis, 41 cases; cirrhosis, 2 cases) and 12 liver biopsy samples from C100-3 antibody-negative patients with chronic liver disease (type B chronic hepatitis, 8 cases; alcoholic liver disease, 4 cases). In the C100-3 antibody-positive group, positive immunostaining for core antigen, envelope antigen and NS3 antigen was found in 23% (11 of 48), 24% (11 of 45) and 24% (11 of 46), respectively. Negative results were obtained in the C100-3 antibody-negative group. Hepatocytes with positive staining were scattered in the lobules, and they were found in the same regions irrespective of whether the antibody to core antigen, to envelope antigen or to NS3 antigen was used. Each positive cell was strongly stained in the cytoplasm; these decorations disappeared after absorption of the primary antibody with purified antigen. mean ALT levels in the patients with positive immunostaining for core, envelope or NS3 antigen (174.8 +/- 105.7 U/L) tended to be higher than in those with negative immunostaining (142.0 +/- 93.8 U/L). On histological evaluation of liver specimens with a scoring system of the histological activity index, intralobular inflammation and fibrosis had higher scores for samples with positive rather than negative immunostaining (p less than 0.05).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)


Molecular characterization of cystic fibrosis: 16 novel mutations identified by analysis of the whole cystic fibrosis conductance transmembrane regulator (CFTR) coding regions and splice site junctions.

The spectrum of cystic fibrosis (CF) mutations was determined in 105 patients by using denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis to screen the entire coding regions and adjacent cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene sequences. The nucleotide substitutions detected included 16 novel mutations, 11 previously described defects, and 11 nucleotide sequence polymorphisms. Among the novel mutations, 6 were of the missense type, 4 were nonsense mutations, 4 were frameshift defects, and 2 affected mRNA splicing. The mutations involved all the CFTR domains, including the R domain. Of the 61 non-delta F508 CF chromosomes studied, mutations were found on 36 (59%), raising the proportion of CF alleles characterized in our patient cohort to 88%. Given the efficacy of the screening method used, the remaining uncharacterized mutations probably lie in DNA sequences outside the regions studied, e.g., upstream-promoter sequences, the large introns, or putative regulatory regions. Our results further document the highly heterogeneous nature of CF mutations and provide the information required for DNA-based genetic testing.


Growth characteristics and proteins of plaque-purified strains of Rickettsia tsutsugamushi.

Six plaque-purified strains of Rickettsia tsutsugamushi (Karp, Gilliam, Kato, JC472B, TA716, and TA763) that fall into three categories of virulence for mice were compared by several parameters. Five of the six strains formed plaques of identical size in mouse cells, but each of three strains tested (representing three mouse virulence types) had a different doubling time in mouse cell cultures. Neither of these properties correlated strictly with virulence in mice, although the avirulent TA716 strain replicated much more slowly than the more virulent Karp and Gilliam strains. R. tsutsugamushi strain heterogeneity was also manifested at the polypeptide level by migration rates in sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gels of three of the major scrub typhus antigens (Sta110, Sta56, and Sta47), with those of Sta110 differing most widely. As expected, immunoblotting with polyclonal mouse sera showed substantial cross-reactivity among the major antigens of the six strains. Similar tests with Karp-induced monoclonal antibodies (MAb) demonstrated that some epitopes on Sta110 and Sta56 were shared by fewer than the six strains, but they identified no epitope unique to Karp. In contrast to the ready demonstration of antigenic heterogeneity in Sta110 and Sta56, four of the five Sta47-specific MAb reacted well with Sta47 from each of the six strains; the remaining MAb bound Sta47 from Karp and the Karp-like JC472B strain more strongly than Sta47 from the other four strains. The MAb also were useful in indicating the possible occurrence of Sta47 as dimers and trimers, the presence of Sta110 (as well as Sta56 and Sta47) in the rickettsial membrane, and the apparent interaction of the putative heat shock protein Sta58 with Sta47 or Sta47-Sta56 complexes.


Immunocytodiagnosis of atypical hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma in post-menopausal women.

In the present study we have evaluated whether monoclonal antibodies (MAbs) B72.3 and AR-3 which display, on histological preparations, a differential reactivity with normal and transformed endometrium, could be a useful adjunct to endometrial cytology in the identification of pre-neoplastic and neoplastic conditions. Immunocytochemical (ICC) tests, using the 2 reagents, were performed on normal cycling endometrium and on hyperplastic and malignant lesions collected by the endocyte technique both from 86 surgically resected specimens and from 62 postmenopausal symptomatic and asymptomatic outpatients. The results obtained showed that the combination of the 2 MAbs can complement conventional morphology in the identification of pre-malignant atypical lesions and endometrial carcinoma of unclear cytological features, thus allowing a selection of those patients who are candidates for fractional curettage.


HOX gene expression in normal and neoplastic human kidney.

As a consequence of transformation, cancer cells generally lose some of their differentiative properties. Thus, alterations interfering with the genetic mechanisms required to maintain embryonic determination could lead to tumorigenesis. Homeobox genes are a network of genes encoding nuclear proteins containing DNA-binding homeodomains that are highly conserved throughout evolution. They are expressed in a stage-related fashion in the developing embryo and, in adult life, in normal tissues. In mice and humans, homeobox genes of the HOX family are organized in 4 clusters on different chromosomes which have presumably evolved by duplication of a primordial gene cluster. Strikingly, the order of genes within each cluster is also highly conserved throughout evolution, suggesting that the physical organization of HOX genes might be essential for their expression. Recent reports indicate that homeobox mutant mice display morphological abnormalities or show neoplastic alterations, and that growth factors can turn on homeobox genes. We have studied the expression of the Antennapedia-like HOX genes in normal human kidney and in renal carcinomas. The great majority of the HOX genes analyzed are expressed in a peculiar manner in normal kidney: blocks of genes, even entire HOX loci, are coordinately regulated. Alterations in HOX gene expression in renal carcinoma can be observed in 2 genes of the HOX-2 locus, HOX-2A and HOX-2E, which are actively expressed in normal kidney and silent in cancer biopsies. The HOX-3H gene is not expressed in normal kidney whereas the HOX-3H transcripts are present in renal carcinomas. Homeobox genes within the 4 HOX loci can be aligned on the basis of the maximal sequence homology of their homeodomains: this alignment defines 13 paralogous gene groups. In renal carcinomas, genes of group 10 (HOX-1D, 2F, 3E, 4B) display a marked difference in their transcript classes when compared to those of normal kidney. Our findings suggest an association between altered HOX gene expression and kidney cancer.


Cryptosporidium parvum sporozoite staining by propidium iodide.

Modified Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) acid-fast stain is the usual method for detection of Cryptosporidium oocysts in feces. Propidium iodide permitted us to stain free or intra-oocyst sporozoites. With the ZN method only 3-5% of the oocysts purified from three human and one experimentally infected lamb dichromate-preserved feces were stained by carbol fuchsin. These fuchsin-stained oocysts were free of intact sporozoites as identified by propidium iodide staining. Treatment with 10% formalin or 0.5% sodium hypochlorite increased the percentage of acid-fast stained oocysts and thus the sensitivity of acid-fast staining. Treatment with sodium hypochlorite induced intra-oocyst sporozoite alterations as demonstrated by flow cytometric analysis of the oocysts' DNA content. Propidium iodide staining of fixed oocysts is a simple and rapid method to visualize sporozoites and to assess oocyst preservation after different treatments.


Further characterization of monoclonal antibodies to Echinococcus granulosus antigen 5 and antigen B.

Two monoclonal antibodies (24.14, 61A12) to Echinococcus granulosus Antigen 5 and two (31.15 and 39B3) to Antigen B were further characterized using modified sheep hydatid cyst fluid antigens (SHCF) in ELISA. None of these four monoclonals were directed against carbohydrate or lipid epitopes of SHCF antigens since they all reacted strongly with periodate or lipase-treated SHCF. On the other hand, they appeared to recognize SHCF determinants of protein nature as protease treatment of SHCF destroyed binding with the monoclonals. Anti-Antigen B monoclonals 31.15 and 39B3 showed strong reaction with boiled SHCF and anti-Antigen 5 monoclonal 24.14 did not. However, the second anti-Antigen 5 monoclonal 61A12 also reacted with boiled SHCF suggesting that some epitopes of Antigen 5 are heat stable. 24.14 and 61A12 may recognize a similar epitope of Antigen 5 whereas 39B3 may be against an epitope of Antigen B different from that recognized by 31.15.