Take the following as truth: Henry V is, in fact, Shakespeare's archetype of the perfect Hero-King precisely because of his Machiavellian qualities (which certainly are present)--Henry understands, as he explains during his tour of the army before Agincourt, that the moral demands upon a King are very different from those upon ordinary men.
Then the following statement: "William Shakespeare's archetype of a hero-king, Henry V is because he posesses Machiavellin qualities; Henry understands this during an army tour predaring Agincourt that moral demands of a kind are extremely different and higher than that of regular men. " is true, false, or inconclusive?