Take the following as truth: Doesn't this mean, then, that having a more or less equal distribution of income makes for a happier society, even if it does not raise anyone's material standard of living ? That is, you can use the fact that people did not feel poor in the 1950s as an argument for a more radical egalitarianism than even most leftists would be willing to espouse.
Then the following statement: "Equal distribution of income does not make society as a whole happy." is true, false, or inconclusive?