Take the following as truth: Henry V is, in fact, Shakespeare's archetype of the perfect Hero-King precisely because of his Machiavellian qualities (which certainly are present)--Henry understands, as he explains during his tour of the army before Agincourt, that the moral demands upon a King are very different from those upon ordinary men.
Then the following statement: "Henry V does not struggle at all within the Shakespeare play, in fact he is the perfect example of moral outstanding. " is true, false, or inconclusive?