I want to know the answer to the following question:
How many plebeian families had an identical standing as the old aristocratic patrician families?
All the background I'm provided with is that "A small number of plebeian families achieved the same standing that the old aristocratic patrician families had always had, but the new plebeian aristocrats became as uninterested in the plight of the average plebeian as the old patrician aristocrats had always been.". Is that enough to answer the question?