I want to know the answer to the following question:
What made binding precedent a possibility?
All the background I'm provided with is that "In turn, according to Kozinski's analysis, the contemporary rule of binding precedent became possible in the U.S. in the nineteenth century only after the creation of a clear court hierarchy (under the Judiciary Acts), and the beginning of regular verbatim publication of U.S. appellate decisions by West Publishing.". Is that enough to answer the question?