I want to know the answer to the following question:
Who argued that Popper's falsificationism was just as logically untenable as Logical Positivism's verificationism?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Hempel came to acknowledge that Logical Positivism's verificationism was untenable, but argued that falsificationism was equally untenable on logical grounds alone.". Is that enough to answer the question?