I want to know the answer to the following question:
A party's consent to a treaty is invalid if it had been given by an agent or body without power to do so under what?
All the background I'm provided with is that "States are reluctant to inquire into the internal affairs and processes of other states, and so a "manifest violation" is required such that it would be "objectively evident to any State dealing with the matter".". Is that enough to answer the question?