I want to know the answer to the following question:
Who delineated the "consent of the governed" in Two Treatises of Government (1689)?
All the background I'm provided with is that "One view of the political changes that occurred during the Enlightenment is that the "consent of the governed" philosophy as delineated by Locke in Two Treatises of Government (1689) represented a paradigm shift from the old governance paradigm under feudalism known as the "divine right of kings".". Is that enough to answer the question?