I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why did Schumann say the Poles were in mourning?
All the background I'm provided with is that "If the mighty autocrat in the north [i.e. Nicholas I of Russia] could know that in Chopin's works, in the simple strains of his mazurkas, there lurks a dangerous enemy, he would place a ban on his music.". Is that enough to answer the question?