I want to know the answer to the following question:
Why weren't swaps registered as debts by Eurostat at the time?
All the background I'm provided with is that "A German derivatives dealer had commented to Der Spiegel that "The Maastricht rules can be circumvented quite legally through swaps," and "In previous years, Italy used a similar trick to mask its true debt with the help of a different US bank.". Is that enough to answer the question?