I want to know the answer to the following question:
What type of action, either direct or indirect, of a state's representative by another type of party to a treaty can invalidate a state's consent?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Coercion of either a representative, or the state itself through the threat or use of force, if used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty, will invalidate that consent.". Is that enough to answer the question?