I want to know the answer to the following question:
What type of action, either direct or indirect, of a state's representative by another type of party to a treaty can invalidate a state's consent?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Consent will also be invalidated if it was induced by the fraudulent conduct of another party, or by the direct or indirect "corruption" of its representative by another party to the treaty.". Is that enough to answer the question?