I want to know the answer to the following question:
According to Locke, the revolutions of the late 1700s and early 1800s were caused when what could not be resolved peacefully?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Clearly a governance philosophy where the king was never wrong was in direct conflict with one whereby citizens by natural law had to consent to the acts and rulings of their government.". Is that enough to answer the question?