I want to know the answer to the following question:
What did McKerrow concede about his new copy-text method?
All the background I'm provided with is that "By 1939, in his Prolegomena for the Oxford Shakespeare, McKerrow had changed his mind about this approach, as he feared that a later edition – even if it contained authorial corrections – would "deviate more widely than the earliest print from the author's original manuscript."". Is that enough to answer the question?