I want to know the answer to the following question:
Did Mendelssohn and Spinoza judge religion on its moral fruits or logic of its theology??
All the background I'm provided with is that "A good religion based in instinctive morals and a belief in God should not theoretically need force to maintain order in its believers, and both Mendelssohn and Spinoza judged religion on its moral fruits, not the logic of its theology.". Is that enough to answer the question?