I want to know the answer to the following question:
When did Henry II appropriate the estates of the late Earl of Cornwall?
All the background I'm provided with is that "John had spent the conflict travelling alongside his father, and was given widespread possessions across the Angevin empire as part of the Montlouis settlement; from then onwards, most observers regarded John as Henry II's favourite child, although he was the furthest removed in terms of the royal succession.". Is that enough to answer the question?