I want to know the answer to the following question:
With what does Popper say Tarski's theory replaces the predicate "is true?"
All the background I'm provided with is that "Although many philosophers have interpreted, and continue to interpret, Tarski's theory as a deflationary theory, Popper refers to it as a theory in which "is true" is replaced with "corresponds to the facts".". Is that enough to answer the question?