I want to know the answer to the following question:
During whose rule was the use of Old Akkadian at its peak?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Gelb and Westenholz differentiate three stages of Old Akkadian: that of the pre-Sargonic era, that of the Akkadian empire, and that of the "Neo-Sumerian Renaissance" that followed it.". Is that enough to answer the question?