I want to know the answer to the following question:
What do these authors use in the form of proof for credit given to the other religion  ?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Thus, commenting in 1734 on the passage in the Qur'an, "I have called her Mary; and I commend her to thy protection, and also her issue, against Satan driven away with stones", George Sale stated: "It is not improbable that the pretended immaculate conception of the virgin Mary is intimated in this passage.". Is that enough to answer the question?