I want to know the answer to the following question:
Who said that Chopin's familiarity with Polish music was more "urbanised"  than true folk music?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Barbara Milewski suggests that Chopin's experience of Polish music came more from "urbanised" Warsaw versions than from folk music, and that attempts (by Jachimecki and others) to demonstrate genuine folk music in his works are without basis.". Is that enough to answer the question?