I want to know the answer to the following question:
The reference to France as Tsarefat was taken from which biblical passage?
All the background I'm provided with is that "In conformity with the custom of designating areas of Jewish settlement with biblical names, Spain was denominated Sefarad (Obadiah 20), France was called Tsarefat (1 Kings 17:9), and Bohemia was called the Land of Canaan.". Is that enough to answer the question?