I want to know the answer to the following question:
In some countries there is no formal deal but what that makes prosecuting bribes difficult?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Furthermore, such a dissociation makes the prosecution of bribery offences easier since it can be very difficult to prove that two parties (the bribe-giver and the bribe-taker) have formally agreed upon a corrupt deal.". Is that enough to answer the question?