I want to know the answer to the following question:
Who was favored by those who lived in the west and mainly used another form of well know verbal language ?
All the background I'm provided with is that "The Eastern Roman Empire – today conventionally named the Byzantine Empire, a name not in use during its own time – became increasingly influenced by Greek culture after the 7th century, when Emperor Heraclius (AD 575 - 641) decided to make Greek the empire's official language.". Is that enough to answer the question?