I want to know the answer to the following question:
Since which century have modern political processes forgone royal assent?
All the background I'm provided with is that "In the vast majority of contemporary monarchies, this act is considered to be little more than a formality; even in those nations which still permit their ruler to withhold the royal assent (such as the United Kingdom, Norway, and Liechtenstein), the monarch almost never does so, save in a dire political emergency or upon the advice of their government.". Is that enough to answer the question?