I want to know the answer to the following question:
The implicit meaning of a Quranic verse that is known fully only by God is which type of ta'wil?
All the background I'm provided with is that "Unacceptable ta'wil is where one "transfers" the apparent meaning of a verse to a different meaning by means of a proof; this method is not without obvious inconsistencies.". Is that enough to answer the question?