Are the differences in these scores, if you look at these means, it looks like they perform best in group 3, then in group 2, or then in group 1. But is that difference purely random, random chance? Or can I be pretty confident that it's due to actual differences in the population means of all of the people who would ever take food 3 versus food 2 versus food 1? What I want to do is say, so my question here is, are the true population means the same? So if the true population means, this is a sample mean just based on 3 samples, but if I knew the true population means, so my question is, is the mean of the population of people taking food 1 equal to the mean of food 2? Obviously I'll never be able to give that food to every human being that could ever live and then make them all take an exam, but we're trying to get a sense of, there is some true mean there, it's just not really measurable. So my question is, this equal to this equal to the mean 3, the true population mean 3.