So minus 2 times cosine of 0, which is 2. All of that over 1 minus the cosine of 0, which is 1. So once again, we get 0 over 0. So does this mean that the limit doesn't exist? No, it still might exist. We might just want to do L'Hopital's Rule again. Let me take the derivative of that and put it over the derivative of that and then take the limit.