So we should get a result, f prime of x, e to the x, should be equal to one over g prime of f of x. So g prime of f of x, so g prime is one over our f of x, and f of x is e to the x, one over e to the x. Is this indeed true? Yes, it is. One over one over e to the x is just going to be e to the x. So it all checks out. And you could do it the other way because these are inverses of each other.